Perhapse I’m being a little defensive today or perhapse I’ve been through this enough times that my haunches are up… In all honesty, I sense a trap. Please prove me wrong.
***But when they came to Jesus and saw that he was already dead, they did not break his legs, but one soldier thrust his lance into his side, and immediately blood and water flowed out. ***(John 19:33-34)
Exhort, encourage, console, comfort… all very vague terms, not at all indicating the fact that there is a very definite message behind the prophecy uttered by Simeon aside from generally proving to Mary that God is really who he claims to be and giving her encouragement, strength and fortitude.
I’ll cut to the chase… There is a very definite message here about Mary being the co-redumtrix with Christ. I’m not up on marian theology enough to be able to speak to the issue with any certainty other than to say that it is there. In both of your posts you seem to be focusing on a generalization of all prophecy in terms of it’s usefullness to teach and to impart faith without going into the specifics of what the OP asked… what does this prophecy mean? Luke 2:35 means something other than “be at peace, have faith, take courage and know that I am God.”
Please accept my apology if I am reading your position incorrectly and not being as charitable as I should.
-Tim-
Thanks for sharing the Scripture verse. I just wanted to have a better idea of where you were coming from when you said that Jesus’ heart was pierced. That was the Scripture that I was thinking of.
No, there is no “trap”. I have no desire to argue about anything. I just love God’s Word and have been doing a study in Luke and when I came across this question in this forum, became curious about what others might think about this verse and if I might contribute some insight. This particular verse has always been at the top of my list of “intriguing” verses in the Bible.
The verse that you posted is interesting in that there is still a future fulfillment of it. Bible prophecy oftentimes has more than one fulfillment. For example, in the passage that you quoted John 19:33-34 from, John says that the piercing of Jesus’ side was prophesied in the Old Testament. But before that, he too, mentions the fact,
for what it’s worth, that Jesus’ legs were not broken, and neither was His side pierced, in order that the Prophetic Scriptures would be fulfilled. He also states that the reason he has witnessed and testified to this is so that the reader might “believe” the TRUTH of God’s Word. He says:
And he who has seen has testified, and his testimony is true; and he knows that he is telling the truth, so that you also may believe.Jhn 19:35 NASB
For these things came to pass **to fulfill **the Scripture, "NOT A BONE OF HIM SHALL BE BROKEN."Jhn 19:36 NASB
And again another Scripture says, "THEY SHALL LOOK ON HIM WHOM THEY PIERCED."Jhn 19:37 NASB
The Old Testament Scripture about His bones not being broken would be a reference to Psalm 34:20, and the reference to His piercing would be in Zechariah:
"I will pour out on the house of David and on the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the Spirit of grace and of supplication, so that they will look on Me whom they have pierced; and
they will mourn for Him, as one mourns for an only son, and they will weep bitterly over Him like the bitter weeping over a firstborn. Zec 12:10 NASB
This verse in Zechariah points forward not only to the crucifixion of Christ, but to his second coming as well:
BEHOLD, HE IS COMING WITH THE CLOUDS, and every eye will see Him, even those who pierced Him; and all the tribes of the earth will mourn over Him. So it is to be. Amen.
Rev 1:7 NASB
As far as the prophecy to Mary that “a sword would pierce even her own soul”, goes, I think there’s a couple different aspects to consider in trying to get to the real meaning and try and p(name removed by moderator)oint when the fulfillment of this prophecy actually occured. For one thing, (
this is just my thoughts now, I’m not trying to argue) I’m not sure that the Scripture is actually connecting the prophecy about Mary’s “soul” being pierced to the piercing of Christ’s “side”. There’s a couple reasons for this. The two verses don’t really line up well.
For instance, the prophecy about Mary’s “soul” being “pierced” with a sword is obviously metaphorical, whereas the prophecy about Jesus being “pierced” is literal. If we want to get technical about it, which we should, because we believe that every word of God is true and accurate, then we can’t help but notice that the Greek word used for “sword” [G4501] in Luke 2:35 is not the same word used for “lance” [3057] in John 19:34. The word used for “pierce” [G1330] in Luke 2:35 is not the same word used for “pierced” [G3572] in John 19:34. “Soul” [G5590] is not the same as “side” [G4125], and Mary’s soul would be pierced with a sword while she was still alive, whereas Jesus was pierced with a lance after he was already dead.
Most of these differences of course can be related to the fact that one prophecy is metaphorical and one is literal.
I think that in order to discover a “meaning” for the prophecy to Mary, we should try to p(name removed by moderator)oint the fulfillment of it first. I believe that just as the “literal” prophecy about Jesus being pierced was literally fulfilled, so the “metaphorical” prophecy about Mary was literally fulfilled. If so, we should be able to find it somewhere in the Scripture . Do you agree?
One more question not just to you, but to myself also: If the prophecy to Mary is not connected to the piercing of Christ’s side, then what would it be connected to?
I’ve got to go now.
God Bless