Perhaps you can comment on this;
*
“The sacred and holy, general Synod of Trent, lawfully assembled in the Holy Ghost … grants, as far as regards the holy Synod itself, to all and each one throughout the whole of Germany, whether ecclesiastics or seculars, of whatsoever degree, estate, condition, quality they be, who may wish to repair to this ecumenical and general Council, the public faith and full security, which they call a safe-conduct … so as that they may and shall have it in their power in all liberty to confer, make proposals, and treat on those things which are to be treated of in the said Synod; to come freely and safely to the said ecumenical Council, and there remain and abide, and propose therein, as well in writing as by word of mouth, as many articles as to them shall seem good, and to confer and dispute, without any abuse or contumely, with the Fathers, or with those who may have been selected by the said holy Synod; as also to withdraw whensoever they shall think fit.*”
And what is this from? The thirteenth session of the Council of Trent.
"*We should make several important observations here.
First, the Council of Trent both invited and offered safe passage to Protestants who wished to come and participate at this ecumenical council.
Second, Trent invited Protestants of all social and ecclesiastical rank to share their theological views, propose topics for debate, and generally participate in the daily affairs of this ecumenical council. "*
So, your constant mantra of “there were protestants at Vatican II” can just as well be applied against the Council of Trent, yet you refuse to do that. Why? If protestants are bad at one council they should be bad at another. Do you have the intellectual honesty to admit this?
This is nothing but a type of religious bigotry. What do you mean “the true Mass?” Does that mean that every other liturgy in the Church is somehow false? How is one form of the Mass superior to another in the means by which its efficacy is heightened or lessened? Is it possible for Christ to be “more present” in one Mass and “less present” in another or is Christ “equally present” in all valid consecrations? If Christ is “equally present” in a non-TLM Mass, is this or is it not a “true Mass?”
Its only been 40 years since the promulgation of the Pauline Missal. What do you want, wholesale massacres of 20 year olds in order to have someone die for the Mass?!?!?
You don’t like the “Novus Ordo;” is THAT crossing the line?!?!?