Augustinian vs. Cyprianic ecclesiology

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The EO accepted Ephesus II up till 451, when Chalcedon, a council called not by the pope but by the emperor, removed Ephesus II from imperial law.

Besides, Theodoret of Cyrrhus was an heretic and was not unjustly deposed by Ephesus II. Pope Leo’s reinstatement of Theodoret before Chalcedon was highly irregular and even worse than Dioscorus reaccepting Eutyches, who was accepted on the basis of an orthodox declaration of faith, which is more than could be said about Theodoret at the time.
 
The EO accepted Ephesus II up till 451, when Chalcedon, a council called not by the pope but by the emperor, removed Ephesus II from imperial law.

Besides, Theodoret of Cyrrhus was an heretic and was not unjustly deposed by Ephesus II. Pope Leo’s reinstatement of Theodoret before Chalcedon was highly irregular and even worse than Dioscorus reaccepting Eutyches, who was accepted on the basis of an orthodox declaration of faith, which is more than could be said about Theodoret at the time.
It doesn’t matter who calls the council, nor does it matter who is represented by attendence. If thats the case then Temporal Rulers have more say than the church.

Confirmation occured in 451 the decision had already been made. And by the Pope at that.
 
Dioscorus wasn’t a monophysite and that was not the reason for his deposition at Chalcedon
He was deposed by the Council of Chalcedon in 451 🤷 For what? The fact this may have been a misunderstanding may be true however, we are viewing factual histroy not assumption.

However Dioscurus has left us but a few fragments. The most important is in the “Hist. Misc.”, III, i, from a letter written in exile at Gangra, in which the banished patriarch declares the reality and completeness of our Lord’s Human Body, intending evidently to deny that he had approved the refusal of Eutyches to admit Christ’s consubstantiality with us.
 
Confirmation occured in 451 the decision had already been made. And by the Pope at that.
No, the Pope wanted *all *decisions made in Ephesus II annuled, this didn’t happen.
He was deposed by the Council of Chalcedon in 451 🤷 For what?
Not coming while summoned thrice. He was under house arrest so he couldn’t come
However Dioscurus has left us but a few fragments. The most important is in the “Hist. Misc.”, III, i, from a letter written in exile at Gangra, in which the banished patriarch declares the reality and completeness of our Lord’s Human Body, intending evidently to deny that he had approved the refusal of Eutyches to admit Christ’s consubstantiality with us.
That’s so, Dioscorus was no monophysite.
 
No, the Pope wanted *all *decisions made in Ephesus II annuled, this didn’t happen…
I addressed this above, the burden of proof is your then to prove your point. Here is what in fact happened.

My point is it’s only on the basis of the Papacy that we can reject the Second Council as an invalid Robber Council. That is, it’s on this basis alone that we can coherently say why this isn’t a Council at all. It did set out to define Doctrine.

Second, the Eastern Orthodox accepted the Pope’s authority in declaring the Second Council of Ephesus to be invalid. They also deny the Second Council of Ephesus, and refer to it in Pope Leo’s terms: as the Robber Council. Historically, the reason the Eastern Orthodox rejected it as a Council wasn’t that it was wrong, but because it had been condemned by the papal legate, and then the pope.

Third, those condemned by the Council looked to the Pope to find out the Council’s Validity. Bishop Theodoret of Cyprus, one of the men condemned by the Robber Council, appealed to the Pope, and said, “I await your sentence, and if you command me to abide by my condemnation, I will abide by it.” This is an Eastern Bishop acknowledging that the Pope, and not an unapproved Council, has the final say.
Not coming while summoned thrice. He was under house arrest so he couldn’t come…
Why was he summoned to come? There is you answer. No one is required to come as we see through history. They are invited. He was not why??? To stand and defend the charges against him. If it was an injustice or not is not the point.
That’s so, Dioscorus was no monophysite.
We are talking past each other this isn’t my point. Apparently its important to you, Amen.
 
I addressed this above, the burden of proof is your then to prove your point.
Here it is:
As this writer pointed out in his paper at Aarhus in 1964, Ephesus 449 was still part of Roman Law and had to be dealt with item by item, i.e. by not only rejecting certain of its decisions, but also by accepting certain of its decisions. The refusal of the Pope of Rome to accept Ephesus 449 and the request of some bishops that the emperor be asked to strike out this Council in toto from its legal standing was rejected by the imperial commissioners. Two of the items of Ephesus 449 which were accepted at Chalcedon were the condemnation of both Theodoret of Cyrus and Ibas of Edessa. (Leo and Theodoret, Dioscorus and Eutyches by Fr. John Romanides)
Why was he summoned to come? There is you answer. No one is required to come as we see through history. They are invited. He was not why??? To stand and defend the charges against him. If it was an injustice or not is not the point.
Because Eusebius of Dorylaeum accused Dioscorus of having unjustly deposed him (which wasn’t the case since Eusebius had forced Eutyches in 448 to acknowledge two natures in Christ, thus violationg canon 6 of Ephesus and the Symbol of Union 433).

So Dioscorus had to come but imperial soldiers prevented him from doing so, even though the acts recorded he wanted to come. Not coming after being summoned was against the canons so he was deposed.

But these are the reasons:
  1. Receiving Eutyches back into communion even before Ephesus II had
    revoked the decisions of the Home Synod of 448 was brought up by
    Paschasinus, by one of the other bishops (96.13), and in the letter to
    Marcian.
  1. The allegedly unjust condemnation of Flavian at Ephesus was
    mentioned by several bishops (89–91; 96. 65, 114, 137).
  1. Dioscorus’ not permitting the reading of Leo’s Tome at Ephesus was
    specified as a crime in Paschasinus’ verdict and in the letters to Marcian and
    Pulcheria.
  1. Dioscorus’ excommunication of Pope Leo just before Chalcedon was
    mentioned by Paschasinus and in the letter to Marcian.
  1. His maltreatment of Eusebius of Dorylaeum was mentioned by one
    bishop (91) and also in the letter to Marcian.
  1. His reinstatement of bishops condemned by provincial councils is
    mentioned, without any particulars, by Paschasinus (see 94n.) (Acts of the Council of Chalcedon, Richard Price, Session III, page 33)
 
Your caught on the issue of “Was Dioscorus a monophysite” This isn’t my point of contention but to view this Council without judgement either way. This was an issue addressed. Here let me show you.

google.com/url?q=http://socrates58.blogspot.com/2007/03/pope-st-leo-great-robber-council-of-449.html&sa=U&ei=r47xT9LCIonm0QHB7qj8Ag&ved=0CBsQFjAC&sig2=yoA0FbgW-edlgzq2zFXX3A&usg=AFQjCNHxrlxmqXqXlpE90f8ZKn_iSjiD4Q

google.com/url?q=http://www.pravmir.com/article_1106.html&sa=U&ei=q5DxT5fTG4Kn6wHahbmcBg&ved=0CBEQFjAA&sig2=KAWWRwjQhgOE8WrHvAIcdg&usg=AFQjCNGh9Sea4R2ngFEZC_uK4Vb_GbSW2g

"The Robber Council of Ephesus was convoked by Emperor Theodosius II on August 8, 449 for the purpose of adjudicating the findings of the council of November 448 chaired by Flavian of Constantinople that had deposed and excommunicated the Archimandrite Eutyches for refusing to admit the two natures of Christ. The council, under the chair of Dioscorus of Alexandria and support of Emperor Theodosius II, found in favor of Eutyches and deposed Flavian of Constantinople.

The Second Council of Ephesus, as this council is also called, was convened by Emperor Theodosius II under the presidency of Dioscorus. Extant records of sessions read and recorded at the Council of Chalcedon in 451 and in a Syriac translation by a Monophysite monk provide a record of the council proceedings. The council was dominated by Theodosius, Dioscorus, and monophysitic supporters. Flavian and six bishops, who were present at the 448 council, were not allowed to sit as judges in the council. Dioscorus ignored the Roman legates and did not read the letter from Pope Leo, but he read a letter from Theodosius that directed the presence of a anti-Nestorian monk, Barsumas. Eutyches declared, after have been given the floor, that he held the faith of Nicene and Ephesus and that he was condemned by Flavian for a slip of the tongue, but he still stated the one nature of Christ. Attempts to present a case by the accuser of Eutyches, Bishop Eusebius of Dorylaeum, were refused, as well as by Flavian. Eutyches objected to attempts to read Leo’s letter, while a petition from Eutyches’ monastery, in his favor, was read. In the end Eutyches was declared orthodox and reinstated to his priestly office.

Flavian was deposed and exiled, soon to die of ill-treatment, and was succeeded by Anatolius, a deacon loyal to Dioscurus. Eusebius was also deposed. The council under Dioscurus then continued on to depose many bishops who had opposed him.

This is my point after upteen posts.

When reports of the actions of the Dioscurus led council and the violent actions of his partisans reached Pope Leo he condemned the council and called it the Latrocinium,

Who Condemned the Council? 🤷 my point was [it had been condemned by the papal legate, and then the pope, then affirmed at the post Council]

a Robber Council and refused to recognize Anatolius as the lawful Bishop of Constantinople until he satisfactorily explained his belief. Theodosius, however, ignored the position of Leo. On July 28, 450, the situation changed radically as Theodosius was killed in a horse accident and his sister Pulcheria returned to imperial power and married the general Marcian, who became the new emperor. The empress and new emperor both opposed the teachings of Dioscurus and Eutyches. With the change in imperial leadership Anatolius and many other bishops now also condemned the teachings of Dioscurus and Eutyches. As a step to clarify the disputes Marician now called for a new council which was held in 451 in Chalcedon."[Orthodox Wiki]

Nevertheless, I look at all this with an outside, objective view. I’m not here to condemn, judge, thats in Gods hands. I’m here to see the Truth not someones tainted view of what they conceived it to be.

However, I didn’t want to distract the OP I was caught in thoughts of Cyprian and became distracted. Again my apology! I’m done.
 
But do you say that knowing exactly what the Orthodox object to? The idea that doctrine (meaning the way we transmit the faith of the Fathers in words) changes over time is not foreign to Orthodoxy, because the Orthodox have historically had an implicit understanding of the limits of human language and knowledge. What the Orthodox reject is the creation of new teachings which have no epistemological justification.
But everyone rejects that. The only question is whether in fact the “new teachings” of Rome fall into this category, and how one decides disagreements on the point.
In other words, when we use words to describe what is believed, we run into the question: ‘how is this particular description of what we know justifiable?’ In allowing for a certain flexibility in how we describe what is believed, however, there is an inherent danger that we will allow systematic thinking (the how it is described) to replace what is believed. The use of systematic thought to resolve and collapse rather than simply to describe the fundamental antinomies of the Christian faith is in fact a form of idolatry as it allows human ideas to supplant God, limiting His infinite and unknowable being, and has been the root of every heresy, excluding those which are based in factual errors (like the Montanists, gnostics, adoptionists, etc.).
Yes, and I think this is a very strong Orthodox criticism. I think the best Catholic defense is that the “systematic” language is still expressing an apophatic truth. So, for instance, the Immaculate Conception is denying that Our Lady had original sin in the Augustinian sense. It may in fact be a pointer to the limitation of the form of words involved in the Augustinian definition of original sin! Papal infallibility is denying a juridical form of conciliarism that reduces the Church to a kind of constitutional monarchy in which the Holy Spirit can only work through a certain process of decision-making.

If you ask of every “new teaching” what it is denying, the teachings become more defensible and less incompatible with Orthodox teaching. Once you grant that the West accepts the fundamentally apophatic nature of doctrine (which I think it clearly does, contrary to the common Orthodox assumption), I think a lot of difficulties disappear.
Now with that in mind, the question is two fold: why did the fathers teach what they did on the subject, and is the current teaching of the Catholic Church consistent with this? I would say that Augustinian and Cyprianic ecclesiology are attempting to explain the same set of observations. The first is that both systems must account for the affirmation that there is no salvation outside of the Catholic Church. Neither system contradicts this fact. The second is that those in schism were received in varying ways. This is the biggest objective criticism of Augustinian ecclesiology, that it does not manage to take this into account. The third is that sometimes schismatic clergy are received as clergy without being reordained, which I suppose could be considered a strong point of Augustinian ecclesiology over Cyprianic ecclesiology.
But when we examine the modern development upon Augustine’s ecclesiology ecclesiology, we see that it still fails to explain the second point, but what is worse, it comes dangerously close to compromising that there is no salvation outside of the Church and that the Church is One, two fundamental doctrines of the Church.
I don’t see this, but perhaps we just differ on the implications of coming “dangerously close” to a heresy.

I would actually say that every orthodox teaching comes “dangerously close” to a heresy, and the desire not to be “dangerously close” to a heresy is in fact one of the chief causes of heresy (the Arians didn’t want to be “dangerously close” to Sabellianism, for instance).
Furthermore, it cannot safeguard against indifferentism like classical Augustinian or Cyprianic ecclesiology can.
I don’t see this.
In asserting that those outside of the Church have gravely compromised their salvation, there is no mistaking that the Church can be the only Ark of Salvation. Far from allowing compassion to trump doctrine, the Orthodox approach prevents doctrine from circumscribing God, by asserting that it is not being God’s power to save these people if he so wills. I would venture that this new development upon Augustinian ecclesiology, far from being a good thing, is something that allows for compassion to modify doctrine, and for a systematic way of thinking to limit the power and sovereignty of God.
An interesting point. But I’d say rather that it accounts for reality.

We agree, I think, that no one is in principle outside the compassion of God. So neither of us would conclude necessarily that a person who died as an atheist went to hell. Am I right about that?

Granting that, the Orthodox position as you describe it puts the devout Protestant or RC in the same position as the atheist. It’s not about who goes to heaven or hell. It’s about having a doctrine that actually accounts for the differences between various kinds of people who are outside the Church, all of whom in principle may be saved by God’s compassion outside the visible extent of covenantal grace.

Essentially, the Orthodox position says that non-Orthodox don’t have a real covenant with God. That means that they have, in Tertullian’s terms, no “right” to the Scriptures and that their sacraments are meaningless. If they are saved they are saved in the same way that a heathen or an atheist may be saved.

As a person who is at this point neither Catholic nor Orthodox, I can only say that there’s no way I could believe that. It would make nonsense of everything that points me toward Catholicism and/or Orthodoxy.

I cannot in good conscience be Protestant because I believe that what is real and good and covenantal in Protestantism points me toward the unity of the Church. That’s the only real reason I’d become either Catholic or Orthodox.

The Orthodox position–and the traditionalist Catholic position, for that matter–cuts off the very reason that makes me take the claims of these Churches seriously in the first place. It’s therefore a non-starter.

Now maybe that just makes me a hard-hearted heretic or something. But that’s the way it is.

Edwin
 
An interesting point. But I’d say rather that it accounts for reality.

We agree, I think, that no one is in principle outside the compassion of God. So neither of us would conclude necessarily that a person who died as an atheist went to hell. Am I right about that?

Granting that, the Orthodox position as you describe it puts the devout Protestant or RC in the same position as the atheist. It’s not about who goes to heaven or hell. It’s about having a doctrine that actually accounts for the differences between various kinds of people who are outside the Church, all of whom in principle may be saved by God’s compassion outside the visible extent of covenantal grace.

Essentially, the Orthodox position says that non-Orthodox don’t have a real covenant with God. That means that they have, in Tertullian’s terms, no “right” to the Scriptures and that their sacraments are meaningless. If they are saved they are saved in the same way that a heathen or an atheist may be saved.

As a person who is at this point neither Catholic nor Orthodox, I can only say that there’s no way I could believe that. It would make nonsense of everything that points me toward Catholicism and/or Orthodoxy.

I cannot in good conscience be Protestant because I believe that what is real and good and covenantal in Protestantism points me toward the unity of the Church. That’s the only real reason I’d become either Catholic or Orthodox.

The Orthodox position–and the traditionalist Catholic position, for that matter–cuts off the very reason that makes me take the claims of these Churches seriously in the first place. It’s therefore a non-starter.

Now maybe that just makes me a hard-hearted heretic or something. But that’s the way it is.

Edwin
But we are not following Tertullian. We simply would say that we do not deny the possibility that God works outside of the Church, and that if He does, we do not know how He does it. Our knowledge of the workings of God is limited to His workings within the visible Church, so to speculate that God will honor this one sacrament performed by group A and these seven sacraments preformed by group B is pointless, because we cannot know that with any certainty.
 
But we are not following Tertullian. We simply would say that we do not deny the possibility that God works outside of the Church, and that if He does, we do not know how He does it. Our knowledge of the workings of God is limited to His workings within the visible Church.
Right, we know where the church is, not where it is not.

If we take this same thinking and then apply this to St Cyprian heres where I see issues. Here let me show you.

google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=4&ved=0CFQQFjAD&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.philvaz.com%2Fapologetics%2Fnum44.htm&ei=yv7xT47JEtD2rAHsm4CQAg&usg=AFQjCNHa1DABar58evkBfiZQDwikiV21YQ&sig2=S7GpGH13gqHF0vZ-5OaQ7g

This is why I mentioned the Anglican debates and Lambeth above. However, that becomes a much more vast work. Rev Chapman works on Saints Augustine, John Chrysostom etc are linked also should one care to read.
 
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