S
simpleas
Guest
I recently came across an historical presentation on Augustinism and Pelagianism original source, which reads very interesting. ( link below)
What interests me most is what Pelagius says about O.S, that infants are not born with it, they are born just as Adam was before sin.
I know we are taught that we are born with O.S and it is wiped away at baptism. But we can choose good or evil once we become the age of reason.
On page 141 (I can’t copy and paste)
Augustine refers to Adam as having the freedom to sin or refain from sin, but that he didn’t have the grace to never will to be evil. I have learnt that we don’t take all what Augustine said as doctrine, but as we accept his theory of O.S we can know by what he says also is how he thought on such matters.
I have come across reference that Augustine may have mis-read pauls teaching on sin :
In Romans 5, Paul addresses the matter of sin. In verse 12 he states, “Therefore . . . sin came into the world through one man, and death came through sin, and so death spread to all because all have sinned” (NRSV). Later in the chapter, Paul juxtaposes the sin of Adam with the righteousness of Christ: “Just as by the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, so by the one man’s obedience the many will be made righteous” (Romans 5:19). In contrast to his contemporary theologians, Augustine drew from his reading of these scriptures that sin was passed biologically from Adam to all his descendants through the sexual act itself, thus equating sexual desire with sin. But why should he have reached this interpretation when marital sexual relations in Jewish society at the time of Christ and Paul were considered honorable and good?
What really made me think on, is :
Paul certainly recognized the lack of a spiritual relationship and saw sin resulting in death (Romans 6:15–18). He saw the world alienated from its Creator (Ephesians 2:12; 4:18), a condition that could be corrected only by the intervention of God. But Paul also saw an opportunity for humanity to be restored to a right relationship with God after losing access to Him in the Garden of Eden. However, this could happen only by becoming a “new creation” in God’s hands. Rather than describing the human condition as “fallen,” Paul may well have thought of the situation as a failure to “rise” to what God had offered. He describes those who reject the truth once they have had a relationship with God as having fallen away (Galatians 5:4, NRSV).
I know we can not deny 1500 or years of doctrine, I’ve read from Polycarp and Justin Martyr,Irenaeus ,Tertullian, Origen,Cyprian, bishop of Carthage, to Augustine to educate myself on O.S theory. (and still educating!)
We took Augustines view, fair enough, but how did the influence of one man’s view become accepted by the church over any other?
Sorry for the long post!
What interests me most is what Pelagius says about O.S, that infants are not born with it, they are born just as Adam was before sin.
I know we are taught that we are born with O.S and it is wiped away at baptism. But we can choose good or evil once we become the age of reason.
On page 141 (I can’t copy and paste)
Augustine refers to Adam as having the freedom to sin or refain from sin, but that he didn’t have the grace to never will to be evil. I have learnt that we don’t take all what Augustine said as doctrine, but as we accept his theory of O.S we can know by what he says also is how he thought on such matters.
I have come across reference that Augustine may have mis-read pauls teaching on sin :
In Romans 5, Paul addresses the matter of sin. In verse 12 he states, “Therefore . . . sin came into the world through one man, and death came through sin, and so death spread to all because all have sinned” (NRSV). Later in the chapter, Paul juxtaposes the sin of Adam with the righteousness of Christ: “Just as by the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, so by the one man’s obedience the many will be made righteous” (Romans 5:19). In contrast to his contemporary theologians, Augustine drew from his reading of these scriptures that sin was passed biologically from Adam to all his descendants through the sexual act itself, thus equating sexual desire with sin. But why should he have reached this interpretation when marital sexual relations in Jewish society at the time of Christ and Paul were considered honorable and good?
What really made me think on, is :
Paul certainly recognized the lack of a spiritual relationship and saw sin resulting in death (Romans 6:15–18). He saw the world alienated from its Creator (Ephesians 2:12; 4:18), a condition that could be corrected only by the intervention of God. But Paul also saw an opportunity for humanity to be restored to a right relationship with God after losing access to Him in the Garden of Eden. However, this could happen only by becoming a “new creation” in God’s hands. Rather than describing the human condition as “fallen,” Paul may well have thought of the situation as a failure to “rise” to what God had offered. He describes those who reject the truth once they have had a relationship with God as having fallen away (Galatians 5:4, NRSV).
I know we can not deny 1500 or years of doctrine, I’ve read from Polycarp and Justin Martyr,Irenaeus ,Tertullian, Origen,Cyprian, bishop of Carthage, to Augustine to educate myself on O.S theory. (and still educating!)
We took Augustines view, fair enough, but how did the influence of one man’s view become accepted by the church over any other?
Sorry for the long post!