S
SalesianSDB
Guest
I’ve been thinking about this lately, but now that I’m sitting down to write it it seems rather silly. I’m sure this is a stupid question, but I’m hoping you will be kind and help me with it. I’m sure this is just because I haven’t been well informed on the Mass throughout history and hope you can clarify this for me.
From what I’ve first read, the Tridentine Mass (EF, I believe) was first published in 1570. From1570 to 1962 the Mass was the same and unchanging. In 1962 the Second Vatican Council revised the Missal and from 1962 to now we have used the Novus Ordo Mass (OF).
Here is my first question, is the OF translation similar to the EF?
My second question is, how was Mass celebrated by the apostles and early Christians prior to the EF in 1570?
I know that Christ gave Peter the keys to the Kingdom and said, “And whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth, it shall be bound also in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose upon earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven.” And from that we get Papal authority and the authority of the Magestarium.
So I’ve been wondering recently. The Eucharist is a gift Christ gave His Church. Does the Church here on Earth (Pope and Cardinals) have the authority to change the rite of communion?
For example, do they have the authority to say, “Before in the Mass, the Priest says XYZ and the bread and wine become the Body and Blood of Christ, but now the Priest says YZX and the bread and wine become the Body and Blood of Christ”?
I don’t know, but it seems to me that if this is an act of God and a gift from God, us humans shouldn’t have the authority to say, “Transubstantiation occurred after this, but now it occurs after this.”
I am just wondering about this lately. My apologies if this is confusing or sounds stupid.
Just thought I should add, I don’t mean this to go against the Church teachings, I attend the OF and love it. This is just a question that popped into my head recently.
Thank you.
From what I’ve first read, the Tridentine Mass (EF, I believe) was first published in 1570. From1570 to 1962 the Mass was the same and unchanging. In 1962 the Second Vatican Council revised the Missal and from 1962 to now we have used the Novus Ordo Mass (OF).
Here is my first question, is the OF translation similar to the EF?
My second question is, how was Mass celebrated by the apostles and early Christians prior to the EF in 1570?
I know that Christ gave Peter the keys to the Kingdom and said, “And whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth, it shall be bound also in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose upon earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven.” And from that we get Papal authority and the authority of the Magestarium.
So I’ve been wondering recently. The Eucharist is a gift Christ gave His Church. Does the Church here on Earth (Pope and Cardinals) have the authority to change the rite of communion?
For example, do they have the authority to say, “Before in the Mass, the Priest says XYZ and the bread and wine become the Body and Blood of Christ, but now the Priest says YZX and the bread and wine become the Body and Blood of Christ”?
I don’t know, but it seems to me that if this is an act of God and a gift from God, us humans shouldn’t have the authority to say, “Transubstantiation occurred after this, but now it occurs after this.”
I am just wondering about this lately. My apologies if this is confusing or sounds stupid.
Just thought I should add, I don’t mean this to go against the Church teachings, I attend the OF and love it. This is just a question that popped into my head recently.
Thank you.