=Salesian "I’ve been thinking about this lately, but now that I’m sitting down to write it it seems rather silly. I’m sure this is a stupid question, but I’m hoping you will be kind and help me with it. I’m sure this is just because I haven’t been well informed on the Mass throughout history and hope you can clarify this for me.
Here is my first question, is the OF translation similar to the EF?
***Not really as nearly everything was altered to some degree. The use of "common
langyage," removal of communion ralis, the music, removal of the tabernacle in MANY churches, Ordinary Ministers of the Eucharist, altar girls, lectors all changed the way we worshiped and the focus of our Liturgy. These changes are in some ways far more PROFOUND than the changes to what is said.
My second question is, how was Mass celebrated by the apostles and early Christians prior to the EF in 1570?/!QUOTE]
CCC #1356 If from the beginning Christians have celebrated the Eucharist and in a form whose substance has not changed despite the great diversity of times and liturgies, it is because we know ourselves to be bound by the command the Lord gave on the eve of his Passion: “Do this in remembrance of me.”
CCC #1345 As early as the second century we have the witness of St. Justin Martyr for the basic lines of the order of the Eucharistic celebration. They have stayed the same until our own day for all the great liturgical families. St. Justin wrote to the pagan emperor Antoninus Pius (138-161) around the year 155, explaining what Christians did:
On the day we call the day of the sun, all who dwell in the city or country gather in the same place.
The memoirs of the apostles and the writings of the prophets are read, as much as time permits.
When the reader has finished, he who presides over those gathered admonishes and challenges them to imitate these beautiful things.
Then we all rise together and offer prayers* for ourselves . . .and for all others, wherever they may be, so that we may be found righteous by our life and actions, and faithful to the commandments, so as to obtain eternal salvation.
When the prayers are concluded we exchange the kiss.
Then someone brings bread and a cup of water and wine mixed together to him who presides over the brethren.
He takes them and offers praise and glory to the Father of the universe, through the name of the Son and of the Holy Spirit and for a considerable time he gives thanks (in Greek: eucharistian) that we have been judged worthy of these gifts.
When he has concluded the prayers and thanksgivings, all present give voice to an acclamation by saying: ‘Amen.’
When he who presides has given thanks and the people have responded, those whom we call deacons give to those present the “eucharisted” bread, wine and water and take them to those who are absent.
**I know that Christ gave Peter the keys to the Kingdom and said, “And whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth, it shall be bound also in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose upon earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven.” And from that we get Papal authority and the authority of the Magestarium.
So I’ve been wondering recently. The Eucharist is a gift Christ gave His Church. Does the Church here on Earth (Pope and Cardinals) have the authority to change the rite of communion?
Any and ALL things that touch the Sacred Liturgy MUST be approved by the Pope. So yes the Pope can make changes. As a FYI: Removal of communion rails was NEVER approved by Rome. The subsiquent use of [NOW] Ordinary Ministers of the eucharist; Communion under Both Species and Communion in the hand began as UNAPPROVED innovations and were finally approved when it was clear there would be no stoping it.
For example, do they have the authority to say, “Before in the Mass, the Priest says XYZ and the bread and wine become the Body and Blood of Christ, but now the Priest says YZX and the bread and wine become the Body and Blood of Christ”?
The Pope has the Power to do this. Evidence of this fact will be seen in Advent of this year with the Revised lectonary.
These are very GRAVE matters and NOT taken lightly by Rome!
I don’t know, but it seems to me that if this is an act of God and a gift from God, us humans shouldn’t have the authority to say, “Transubstantiation occurred after this, but now it occurs after this.”
Eucharist is From God [the Father] Of God [the Son] and Through God [The Holy Spirit]; that reality can never change Your concerns no doubt are heartfelt;
but the KEYS and with them BOTh the Holy Spirit and Jesus Himself [Jn. 14:16-17; Jn. 17:15-19] remain in the Church to protect Her TRUTHS. Man changing the words do not change either the action of God or the final outcome. That dear friend is thee KEY!
I am just wondering about this lately. My apologies if this is confusing or sounds stupid.
Just thought I should add, I don’t mean this to go against the Church teachings, I attend the OF and love it. This is just a question that popped into my head recently.
IMO yours was a well thought out question expressing a concern. THANK YOU.
Thank you.
More changes have taken place in the past 60 years than the previous 1,900.
God Bless,
Pat
Nowhere did it say, “Change various parts of the Mass, EXCEPT the words of consecration.” Heck, there were additional eucharistic prayers created, even though those were not specifically called, for either.