K
KindredSoul
Guest
I was just thinking…
So far as I know, the Church doesn’t normally baptize someone who doesn’t wish to be Catholic, even if that person (for whatever reason) really wanted to be baptized in the Catholic Church but somehow didn’t want to be Catholic.
However, by the same token, the Church teaches that baptism is normative for salvation. Therefore, in refusing someone a baptism, the person’s salvation might be seriously hindered, especially if they are never baptized as a result (can we really say baptism of desire counts when the person has no intention of ever becoming Catholic or getting baptized elsewhere? I know this situation is strongly hypothetical, but it’s not impossible).
I trust the Church’s policy, now and forever. However, my question is this:
Is this policy a rule, or a simple fact? I was thinking of something…the Church teaches that baptism in the Trinitarian formula automatically puts one in imperfect communion with the Church. Perhaps, then, we can say that baptism, when administered by a Catholic, simply automatically brings the baptized into full communion with the Church (maybe by virtue of the fact that the Catholic baptizer knows the full meaning of baptism). In other words, for a Catholic refuse baptism to someone who refused to become Catholic would be for his/her own good, as in being baptized they simply would become fully Catholic (whether they or the baptizer realized it) and thus be responsable for all the Church’s teachings…and therefore would not be in a very good spot if they go on with life not knowing they are responsable for those things.
As you can see, this makes it a supernatural fact (much in the same way as the male Priesthood) as opposed to a rule. I’m fairly certain that the Church hasn’t declared this; but does the theology of the Church at this point leave this open as a possible explanation for the Church’s policy?
So far as I know, the Church doesn’t normally baptize someone who doesn’t wish to be Catholic, even if that person (for whatever reason) really wanted to be baptized in the Catholic Church but somehow didn’t want to be Catholic.
However, by the same token, the Church teaches that baptism is normative for salvation. Therefore, in refusing someone a baptism, the person’s salvation might be seriously hindered, especially if they are never baptized as a result (can we really say baptism of desire counts when the person has no intention of ever becoming Catholic or getting baptized elsewhere? I know this situation is strongly hypothetical, but it’s not impossible).
I trust the Church’s policy, now and forever. However, my question is this:
Is this policy a rule, or a simple fact? I was thinking of something…the Church teaches that baptism in the Trinitarian formula automatically puts one in imperfect communion with the Church. Perhaps, then, we can say that baptism, when administered by a Catholic, simply automatically brings the baptized into full communion with the Church (maybe by virtue of the fact that the Catholic baptizer knows the full meaning of baptism). In other words, for a Catholic refuse baptism to someone who refused to become Catholic would be for his/her own good, as in being baptized they simply would become fully Catholic (whether they or the baptizer realized it) and thus be responsable for all the Church’s teachings…and therefore would not be in a very good spot if they go on with life not knowing they are responsable for those things.
As you can see, this makes it a supernatural fact (much in the same way as the male Priesthood) as opposed to a rule. I’m fairly certain that the Church hasn’t declared this; but does the theology of the Church at this point leave this open as a possible explanation for the Church’s policy?