It seems to me that the Catholic Church makes the following claims in this regard:
- Peter was the first to occupy the office of the Pope (an office created by Christ himself)…while I hardly agree that such was the case, we can leave this assertion aside b/c the corrupt Popes are not used to challenge this particular claim;
- The office of the Pope was invested with a unique spiritual gift of infallibility;
- The office (automatically?) vested in the bishopric at the location nearest to Peter’s place of death (which, by tradition, occurred at Rome) and then is forever passed on to the successors of that office notwithstanding that in quite a number of instances the successors to that office a) were appointed with absolute disregard for God’s requirements for the office of overseer; and b) were particularly unrighteous fellows.
For a good many Protestants the existence of the Bad Popes (BPS) calls into question claims #2 and #3.
Re # 2: I don’t see any evidence in scripture that suggests the existence of such a unique gift (after all other apostles authored scripture that is every bit as infallible as anything Peter produced). Infallibility simply isn’t mentioned in relation to Peter (by any NT author) and no such spiritual gift is listed by those who list spiritual gifts (nor, for that matter is the office of “Pope” listed by those who name offices in the NT. As such, Catholic efforts to present a scriptural argument for #2 merely resort to (what I see as forced and self-serving) subjective interpretations of various passages.
Re#3: Again, I don’t see anything in scripture for any part of it. The Catholics here have put forward two candidates for an office that continued with God’s blessing notwithstanding unrighteousness. The first was the line of Israelite/Judean kings, but they didn’t enjoy any infallibility and the hand of God was removed from them. If the Papal office is like the line of Israelite/Judean kings, then it would in fact, follow that the Pope isn’t infallible and that the hand of God was likely removed from that less than infallible office (reducing its significance in the kingdom even more). The second was the seat of Moses occupied by the Pharisees. Again, if the Papal office is like the Pharisees and teachers of the law, then it would, in fact, follow that the Pope isn’t infallible and is the teacher of bad tradition and that the hand of God was likely removed from that less than infallible office (reducing its significance in the kingdom even more).
Without any clear scriptural foundation for assertion #2 or #3, Protestants will look to see if there is any extrabiblical evidence that would justify those claims. Regarding the ECFs, before any special authority should be given to their opinions, assertions or interpretations it would have to be established that they enjoyed some sort of special insight/connection to the teachings of the apostles. Catholics must acknowledge that their doctrine has undergone “development” and in doing so acknowledge that being closer in time to the apostles does not, by itself, mean that the ECF enjoyed a greater understanding (otherwise any and all development of doctrine would be bad). Further, the use of the works of ECFs often suffers from forced and self-serving interpretations of various passages.
What then is left by which one might objectively evaluate assertions #2 and #3? Well first, we might agree on the following from scripture:
- The appointee to the office of overseer was to be blameless
- The gift of infallibility would be the work of the Spirit
- The fruits of the Spirit are righteousness, self-control etc.
If so, then the presence of unrighteous Popes calls into question the attachment of the HS to that office b/c the fruit that should be displayed b/c of the presence of the HS is absent, and in fact, the opposite fruit is what was actually found on those occasions. Why would God’s Spirit remain with that office solely for the purpose of ensuring infallibility of doctrine and w/o ensuring an adequate level of blamelessness (especially when the appointers and the bad pope appointees turned their backs on God and his requirements). Why would God continue to keep his hand of blessing on that office? Where is the biblical precedent for God to be valuing doctrine over righteousness in the manner that such a continued blessing would require? If one looks at the matter in that fashion, then the likelihood of the gift of infallibility to be attached to the office of the Pope is diminished or even eliminated (depending on what significance one places on those bad Popes).
Hopefully that will explain why the observation that “protestant pastors aren’t sinless either” totally misses the point. A special presence of the Holy Spirit ensuring infallibility is not claimed for those pastors and would actually be denied (exactly b/c of their sinfulness… among other reasons). If you want to compare the bad Popes to bad Protestant pastors, the I will readily agree that they are similar and that none of them occupied an office that possessed infallibility.