D
Dranu
Guest
Suppose 2267 speaks of a prudential judgment (for sake of the following argument). Going on that assumption, suppose one says 2267 ‘does not speak of a prudential judgment’ and another says 2267 ‘does speak of a prudential judgment’. In that matter that latter person would be on the side of not rejecting 2267 but the former would. Now the former does not have to do so willfully, but objectively what matters is what 2267 says, not what we subjectively think about it. The side you are defending indeed may be wrong, and, from what I can tell, it most likely is. Thus I can well say to your quoteIt has to continually be reminded here in this debate, I’m not on the side of rejecting Church teaching here. I’m on the side of defending what is spoken in 2267.
It has to continually be reminded here in this debate, I (Dranu) am not on the side of rejecting Church teaching here. I (Dranu) am on the side of defending what is [really] spoken in 2267.
It may be common sense to you but I honestly do not see it, and such a statement does not help me. To convince me and educate me (if you are indeed right), you would need at least some sort of argument. If you simply want to call my position lacking common sense and be done with it, I suppose that’s okay (I do tend to be highly analytically which sometimes implies a lack of commons sense), but I am not convinced. Perhaps if I elaborate on why I find your argument unhelpful you can help me out some:Dranu:![]()
No contradiction exists and really no explanations are needed because its all just a matter of …. common sense.So back to my question:
I assume you are saying the following:
1.) The second line of 2267 is a matter of moral teaching.
2.) I agree that the Old Testament allowed for the death penalty for things that would be considered immoral under 2267.
3.) Despite this contradiction, it is explainable by the maxim ‘Love thy neighbor as thyself’.
Is that a correct assessment? If so could you elaborate on 3?
By ‘elaborate on 3’ I mean to ask if you could give me a deductive argument as to how 1 and 2 can be true. I am not denying that the New Covenant is more about the common good, I just don’t see how that reconciles 1 and 2.
The ‘God is Love’ argument needs to be spelled out, not just stated. I hear many people throw the term ‘love’ out when they reject Church teachings and they fail to realize that ‘love’ can well damn a person too. ‘Love’ is not the same as softness, non-violence and non-condemnation. It is willing good. Indeed it seems it is also God’s love, sicne God’s act never changes, that damns the wicked and condemns men to death (e.g. Herod, Ananias, and Sapphira in the New Testament to name a few), even though it is an insufficient cause of the end of that justice. As to the claim that the New Testament is about the common good (rather than a race’s good), no doubt. I agree. However, I see no connection between that and how it excuses God commanding a violation of a moral law in the past (which by nature is universal/common).