E
evolwk
Guest
I always get hung up on the “intention” part of the baptismal validity canon:
“Canon 869 §2. Those baptized in a non-Catholic ecclesial community must not be baptized conditionally unless, after an examination of the matter and the form of the words used in the conferral of baptism and a consideration of the intention of the baptized adult and the minister of the baptism, a serious reason exists to doubt the validity of the baptism.”
I was baptized in a Baptist church and my baptism was considered valid when I converted. I am still confused about the intent part because I am fairly sure the pastor who baptized me did not intend the same thing the Church intends. Nor did I intend it. I did not believe in the true nature or effect of baptism at that point. How can that be valid, given the intent of both me and the pastor??
“Canon 869 §2. Those baptized in a non-Catholic ecclesial community must not be baptized conditionally unless, after an examination of the matter and the form of the words used in the conferral of baptism and a consideration of the intention of the baptized adult and the minister of the baptism, a serious reason exists to doubt the validity of the baptism.”
I was baptized in a Baptist church and my baptism was considered valid when I converted. I am still confused about the intent part because I am fairly sure the pastor who baptized me did not intend the same thing the Church intends. Nor did I intend it. I did not believe in the true nature or effect of baptism at that point. How can that be valid, given the intent of both me and the pastor??