That’s right… death was passed down from Adam, and Adam’s death was a result of his sin.
And
our death is the result of
his sin, that’s original sin.
Again, you are right in using this verse, but wrong that it refers to sin… it very plainly says “death”.
Since the wages of sin is death, the fact that death passed to all men is
evidence that all men in some way participated in Adam’s sin: that’s original sin.
The statement that “judgment was by one to condemnation” is referring to Adam and his sin,
Not really. The “one” it’s referring to is the one
offense that Adam committed.
but is only referring to the “death” we all are born into (as the previous verse states),
I think it’s referring to spiritual death and physical death. In other words, original sin.
but as a result of this death we are eventually guilty of “many offences”.
That’s not at all what the verse says. It clearly says (as you quoted earlier) that the free gift was “of many offenses.” This could mean a number of things: it could mean that God’s free gift was that we would be guilty of many offense, but that’s absurd (even though that seems to be what you’re claiming here). It could mean that God’s free gift was given
through many offenses, and that does indeed seem to be accurate: through Christ’s many offenses (and others’ suffering in the Body of Christ) God’s free gift of salvation is given to us.
Just as the condition of death passed to all men from Adam, every man makes a conscious decision to sin…
A decision they would not necessarily make had they not already contracted original sin, resulting in spiritual death, from their father Adam.
which is why every man will be rightfully judged for their own sins… Peter said…
I’ve asked you before, please do not use quote ] for your biblical quotations. It just makes your posts harder to quote. Is that your intention?
Peter said, “1Pe 2:24 Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed.”
Peter makes the distinction between “our sins” and original sin, and also affirms the state of “death” in us facilitating those sins.
Sorry, (Edited for charity) Peter’s not talking about original sin versus actual sin; he’s talking about how Christ
died for our sins (both original and actual) so that we might die to sin itself. He’s following the same train of thought as Paul when he says, “The death he died he died to sin, once for all, but the life he lives he lives to God. So you also must consider yourselves dead to sin and alive to God in Christ Jesus.” When Peter says, “we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness” he’s not saying
anything about original sin.
Sure, you’re right. But that still doesn’t describe an “original sin” which we are guilty of.
So what you’re saying is that God imposed the penalties of spiritual death and physical death
for no reason at all? That’s the flaw of your claims, John: you have no explanation for
why the One, Just God imposed a penalty on the descendants of a man as a consequence for that one man’s sin.
I don’t see where you get the statement “dead through sin”. Verse 1 says we are all dead “in” sins and trespasses.
Both would be valid translations of the dative in Ephesians 2:1.
That verse does not prove original sin, but proves we are “dead” without Christ,
Why are we dead, John?
and since we are dead we have become sinners by chosing to sin (which babies do not do).
Why are babies dead to Christ, John?
By “children of wrath” describes us who were followers of “wrath” because we were “dead” spiritually … which is why we sought to fulfil the desires of the flesh.
We were
by nature children of wrath. We’ve had this nature since we were born. Why do we have this nature, John? Please, explain why the sin of Adam resulted in
our reception of this nature as children of wrath.
Jeremy
