B
Black_Knight_MI
Guest
This is a nice literalist interpretation of that passage but there is nothing in that verse or in any other passages in the New Testament that supports (or even implies!) multiple baptisms. It’s just not there, no matter how hard you wish for it to be and this is an example of the twisted interpretation that results from trying to force your denominational theology onto a passage of the Word of God.This verse alone verifies the existence of more than one Baptism mentioned in the Bible. According to Peter, there is a baptism that is the “putting away the filth of the flesh” (such as the one that Scylla mentioned was related to circumcision), and one that is an “answer of a good conscience toward God”.
Since this verse is speaking of Baptism saving us, and this baptism not being the one that is “putting away the filth of the flesh”, it can only be the baptism that is an answer of a good conscience toward God. In the text of this verse, Peter was using the deluge as an illustration for baptism… How that “eight souls were saved by water”. It must not be misunderstood here that “water” is the principle topic, as Noah and his family were never submerged in the water… but were saved from the judgement of God by water, and the salvation of those people is the topic of this passage.
John Martignoni points out the important difference between the Catholic literal reading of the Bible and the “literalist” or “fundamentalist” interpretation of same when he says.
Q: A friend of mine said that his church takes the Bible literally, but that the Catholic Church doesn’t…is that true?
A: Actually, there is no truth to that, whatsoever. Catholics interpret the Bible in a “literal” sense, while many fundamentalists, Evangelicals, and others interpret the Bible in a literalist sense.
The “literal” meaning of a passage of Scripture is the meaning that the author of that passage of Scripture intended to convey. The “literalist” interpretation of a passage of Scripture is: “that’s what it says, that’s what it means.”
Let me give you an example to illustrate the difference. If you were to read a passage in a book that said it was “raining cats and dogs outside”, how would you interpret that? As Americans, in the 21st Century, you would know that the author was intending to convey the idea that it was raining pretty doggone hard outside. That would be the “literal” interpretation…the interpretation the author intended to convey. On the other hand, what if you made a “literalist” interpretation of the phrase, “it’s raining cats and dogs”?
The “literalist” interpretation would be that, were you to walk outside, you would actually see cats and dogs falling from the sky like rain. No taking into account the popularly accepted meaning of this phrase. No taking into account the author’s intentions. The words say it was raining cats and dogs, so, by golly, it was raining cats and dogs! That is the literalist, or fundamentalist, way of interpretation.
If someone 2000 years in the future picked up that same book and read, “It was raining cats and dogs outside,” in order to properly understand that passage in the book, they would need a “literal” interpretation, not a “literalist” interpretation. Now, think about that in the context of interpreting the Bible 2000-3000 years after it was written.
LINKLiteral, or Catholic, interpretation vs. literalist, or fundamentalist, interpretation.
Blackie