Baptism by disciples

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In John 4:2, it talks about the disciples baptizing more people than John the Baptist… Is that baptism different than the baptism Jesus instructs his disciples to do after his resurrection?
 
My own opinion only, but I would say no. There are often several things we pick up about John’s Gospel that sort of shift our thinking in terms of the chronology of the other Gospels. Jesus may have taught his disciples baptism long before the Great Commission was given.
 
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I was wondering if that baptism would have removed the stain of original sin since Jesus had not yet given the Holy Spirit to his disciples.
 
removed the stain of original sin since Jesus had not yet given the Holy Spirit to his disciples.
I would think so; after all, the descent of the Holy Spirit didn’t come until many weeks after the disciples had been out baptizing per Jesus’s command (referencing the Great Commision and Pentecost here). Why would he want them out baptizing if it wasn’t having full effect?
 
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Those “more disciples” were all Jews; the Great Commission, however, called for them to do this [discipling] of all nations - inclusion and blessing of the Gentiles.
 
In John 4:2, it talks about the disciples baptizing more people than John the Baptist… Is that baptism different than the baptism Jesus instructs his disciples to do after his resurrection?
Yes. At that point in the narrative, the sacrament of Baptism – as administered by the Church – had not yet come into existence. Remember – the sacrament is “in water and the Spirit”.

Some would argue that assertion, but I would respond that Jesus Himself tells Nicodemus (John 3) that a baptism of “water and the Spirit” is necessary for salvation, but the Gospel of John points out (John 7:39) that “[t]here was, of course, no Spirit yet, because Jesus had not yet been glorified.” So, I would conclude that the baptisms of John 4 aren’t sacramental baptism.
 
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