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Nathan_Wagar
Guest
Original sin is basically our loss of sanctifying grace. My understanding of baptism is that it restores that, thus cleansing us of original sin. However, sanctifying grace would appear to be a condition dealing with your spiritual standing before God. I do not understand why Adam can pass on his spiritually fallen, “grace-less” state by his role as the covenant head of man, but two baptized parent cannot pass on their “grace-full” state to their child. This seems somewhat logically inconsistent to me, and so I have a very difficult time explaining it to someone else.
Since it would seem that whether or not we possess grace has no bearing on the fact that our children still possess a fallen nature, it also seems to throw a kink in the issue of the Immaculate conception. Sure, Mary could be immaculately conceived, but that would have no bearing on her son receiving a fallen nature. As it would seem above, just because your parents both have grace, doesn’t mean you will.
I am just having difficulty grasping all the particulars of this. These arguments were given to me from my father, and I really don’t have an answer for them that makes theological sense.
Since it would seem that whether or not we possess grace has no bearing on the fact that our children still possess a fallen nature, it also seems to throw a kink in the issue of the Immaculate conception. Sure, Mary could be immaculately conceived, but that would have no bearing on her son receiving a fallen nature. As it would seem above, just because your parents both have grace, doesn’t mean you will.
I am just having difficulty grasping all the particulars of this. These arguments were given to me from my father, and I really don’t have an answer for them that makes theological sense.