Baptism in the Bible

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Why do some verses in the Bible say that the apostles baptized in the name of Jesus when they should have baptized in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit? Example:

On hearing this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
(Acts 19:5 RSV-CE)
 
just a thought

The new testament was written by those who believed that Jesus is God. Theologically (and I’m no expert, not even an amateur theologian) baptism in the “name” of Jesus is necessary and sufficient.

Otherwise to baptize in the NAME (not “names”) of the Father. etc. is probably equivalent. There is only ONE name under heaven by which men are saved.

Theology is wierd, where one thing turns into another thing, and it’s still the same thing.
 
Why do some verses in the Bible say that the apostles baptized in the name of Jesus when they should have baptized in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit? Example:

On hearing this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
(Acts 19:5 RSV-CE)
It means “baptized in the name of the Trinity,” but the word “Trinity” hadn’t been invented yet. Baptism in the early Church was given in accordance with the instructions of Jesus in Mt 28:19-20. The Bible must be read holistically, thematically, not a verse at a time,
 
It means “baptized in the name of the Trinity,” but the word “Trinity” hadn’t been invented yet. Baptism in the early Church was given in accordance with the instructions of Jesus in Mt 28:19-20. The Bible must be read holistically, thematically, not a verse at a time,
So it means the same thing as Trinitarian baptism? That said, I do know that we should not read the Bible one verse at a time but there are other verses which indicate they were baptized in the name of Jesus as well.
 
So it means the same thing as Trinitarian baptism? That said, I do know that we should not read the Bible one verse at a time but there are other verses which indicate they were baptized in the name of Jesus as well.
This is an explanation of Acts 19:5 from the Navarre Bible; “They were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus”: ‘the view of most commentators is that this does not mean that the Trinitarian formula which appears in Matthew 28:19 (cf. the note on Acts 2:38) (“in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit”) was not used. The reference here may simply be a way of distinguishing Christian Baptism from other baptismal rites which were features of Judaism in apostolic times – particularly John the Baptist’s rite.’
 
Why do some verses in the Bible say that the apostles baptized in the name of Jesus when they should have baptized in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit? Example:

On hearing this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
(Acts 19:5 RSV-CE)
The simple answer is to state the obvious. It is obvious that the words “only” and “alone” are not in this verse. It does not say they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus only or alone. Therefore, this does not contradict the Triune formula.

Context is everything. Let us cover the complex answer:

1 AND it came to pass, while Apollo was at Corinth, that Paul having passed through the upper coasts, came to Ephesus, and found certain disciples. 2 And he said to them: Have you received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? But they said to him: We have not so much as heard whether there be a Holy Ghost. 3 And he said: In what then were you baptized? Who said:* In John’s baptism.* 4 Then Paul said: John baptized the people with the baptism of penance, saying: That they should believe in him who was to come after him, that is to say, in Jesus. 5 Having heard these things, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. (Acts 19:1-5)

We should note the following from this. First, these people were ignorant of the Holy Spirit. This is perfectly understandable, since they were also shown to be mostly, if not all, ignorant of Jesus Christ. This is the reason that Paul reminded them that John said that they should believe in “him who was to come after him,” which would be Christ. Hence, knowledge of Christ becomes key to this passage. As key to their understanding, Luke felt compelled to state that they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.

Of course, the question could be asked at this point as to why Luke did not state that they were baptized in the name of Jesus and the Holy Spirit. Since the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father and Son, they had to grasp the concept of the Son for them to come to a knowledge of the Holy Spirit. Luke and Paul knew that Jesus was the key to their understanding everything else. Again, this is the reason that Luke writes verse five as he did.
 
Not only did the apostles baptize in the name of Jesus but Scripture also tells us that they spoke, taught, preached, pronounced judgment, gave thanks, and did everything “in the name of Jesus.” On that account, are we to suppose that the only word they ever uttered was the holy name of “Jesus” or they only mentioned Jesus and never mentioned the Father and the Holy Spirit? I don’t think so. Neither do I think that they uttered only the holy name of “Jesus” or mentioned only Jesus when Scripture tells us that they baptized in the name of Jesus. Rather, the phrase “in the name of Jesus” means that they were doing an action which Jesus had authorized and/or empowered them to do.
 
When you do something “in the name of” somebody, you are doing it with the full authority of that somebody (or something).

So, if they are baptizing “in the name of Jesus”, then they are doing it with the full authority of Jesus. What authority is that? Matthew 28:18-20 - **Then Jesus approached and said to them, “All power in heaven and on earth has been given to me. Go, therefore, and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the holy Spirit, teaching them to observe all that I have commanded you.

Hence, if I’m doing something with somebody’s authority, I should be doing it the way they told me to do it.*

 
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