T
Thorwald
Guest
In ACTS, we are told that the ‘eight’ (Noah’s family) were saved by water. From then forward, until the time that Christ & John the Baptist ‘came on the scene’, no further ‘saving by water’ was required.
We know that the disciples/apostles were instructed to perform baptisms after a person accepted Christ as their saviour, and began a new ‘Christian’ life. These disciples/apostles, were ‘annointed’ above ‘teachers’.
I can find no witten Word in the Bible, that gives authorization to ‘teachers’, for them to perform baptisms. Is it possible, that baptism was only required for the ‘first Christians’, and that we are in fact the ‘inheritors’ of their works, without us being required to also be baptized?
This may seem like a ‘dumb question’, but I am not so sure that it is.
We know that the disciples/apostles were instructed to perform baptisms after a person accepted Christ as their saviour, and began a new ‘Christian’ life. These disciples/apostles, were ‘annointed’ above ‘teachers’.
I can find no witten Word in the Bible, that gives authorization to ‘teachers’, for them to perform baptisms. Is it possible, that baptism was only required for the ‘first Christians’, and that we are in fact the ‘inheritors’ of their works, without us being required to also be baptized?
This may seem like a ‘dumb question’, but I am not so sure that it is.
Carlan