M
meaprilrain
Guest
Yes this is why I said I didn’t think the Lord would deny anyone the baptism using just whatever few means they had available to them with an honest and pure heart? And I did note the Didache quotes, but they still listed in preference order of how it ought to be done ? first being the river, then the standing water and then pouring .Though the “matter” of the sacrament is crucial – it MUST be water – the discipline of the sacrament can be modified according to pastoral necessity. In cold climates, standing in the river could be downright risky.
Scripture is by no means unequivocal on the subject of how baptism was done. We have first century literature that mentions pouring
So if there was no immersion involved then why would the didache list a preference order for the river, the pond and then pouring ? If it is just the “MATTER” being water that is important then why would it matter if it was from moving water, standing water or pouring water ?
So my question is still with the most important scripture being the Lords own baptism “by immersion” my opinion
Why does the church not choose this first ? and use the others for extreme cases of the first not being an option ? I refer directly to the previous poster that said her Priest does not do immersions because he doesn’t like to get wet ??!!! I find this an unacceptable reason not to perform the way the Lord would have liked the first choice to be ?