C
catholicchampio
Guest
In reading different tracts form different apologists I find that many of them seem to confuse “baptism of desire” with “desire for baptism” Baptism of desire is an implicit “desire” to follow God to the best of one’s conscience. While "desire for baptism” is an explicit desire to want to receive the sacrament of Baptism. I understand that the council of Trent says that justification can’t be achieved without baptism or the desire of… but I believe this is talking about desire—that is explicit desire for the sacrament–this is not baptism of desire. Many “feenyites” (people who believe explicit faith and water baptism are absolutely necessary for salvation) use many councils and Popes (Florence Pope Boniface VIII, Trent etc) to support their opinion. However I think the strongest argument is not Trent. Because I believe, as I explained earlier Trent is talking about an explicit desire for Baptism. The Holy Office under Pius XII clarified this position when it said that the faith that leads to salvation need not always be explicit. I would like your comments on why this argument isn’t used more often–Is my logical flawed somewhere?