P
PoorKnight
Guest
Had a thought occur to me while listening to a Patrick Madrid debate in which Infant Baptism was brought up:
Might it be helpful for us, as Catholics, to point out that the Church requires someone to repent before being baptized only when they have something to repent of?
This thought is still formulating so I might be stating it wrong so let me try to clarify.
Baptism removes sin, both original and personal. A person above the age of reason would have both personal and original sin. The “repent” part would only apply to the personal sin; we cannot “repent” from original sin.
A baby does not have personal sin to repent from and as St. Augustine (I believe) said, that which was contracted without permission can be removed without permission.
Does this make sense and would pointing this out be a helpful part of explaining Infant Baptism? Can someone help flesh this out please?
God Bless
PoorKnight of Christ and His Church
Might it be helpful for us, as Catholics, to point out that the Church requires someone to repent before being baptized only when they have something to repent of?
This thought is still formulating so I might be stating it wrong so let me try to clarify.
Baptism removes sin, both original and personal. A person above the age of reason would have both personal and original sin. The “repent” part would only apply to the personal sin; we cannot “repent” from original sin.
A baby does not have personal sin to repent from and as St. Augustine (I believe) said, that which was contracted without permission can be removed without permission.
Does this make sense and would pointing this out be a helpful part of explaining Infant Baptism? Can someone help flesh this out please?
God Bless

PoorKnight of Christ and His Church