I have heard that the permission of the Apostolic See is presumed when given the written consent of the two eparchies. Was this Pope Francis’s revision? If not, what was the revision?1/ a person who has obtained permission from the Apostolic See;
[n.b. this is somewhat outdated, because under the revised laws of HH Francis, obtaining such permission is extremely easy and doesn’t involve direct communication]
Interesting. What does the law provide for the child whose parents’ intention of different ritual church enrollment for their child was not expressed at the time of the baptism? Would the child be enrolled in the parents’ intended, but not expressed, ritual church?–What was the parents’ intention in having her initiated in the Latin Rite, or was she an adult at the time? Did they intend for her to be enrolled as a Latin?
At what point is this permission rescinded? Once one stops living with one’s parents? After one’s parent passes away? Never?CCEO (Eastern Canon Law)Canon 883
2. In families in which the parents are enrolled in different Churches sui iuris, it is permitted to observe the norms of one or the other Church, in regard to feast days and days of penance.
No.Furthermore, does a Latin Catholic wishing to transfer ritual churches need to sign or write anything?
Local Eastern priest, perhaps asking every few weeks if there’s an update, just so you’re not forgotten or slipped through the cracks.May a Latin Catholic simply verbally request this desire to the local parish priest who then handles all the paperwork himself (on behalf of the Latin Catholic wishing to transfer)?
Give an example. If the intention is not expressed, there is no proof of intent. The priest is not a mind reader.Interesting. What does the law provide for the child whose parents’ intention of different ritual church enrollment for their child was not expressed at the time of the baptism? Would the child be enrolled in the parents’ intended, but not expressed, ritual church?
It would be a difficult case to make, unless there were some other proofs like someone raised throughout their life in a different church than what the register shows (usually this is one sided in favor of the East)If so, should any changes be made to the child’s baptismal record? Would those changes enact the transfer or would those changes simply mark what has always been true, regardless of what the baptismal record previously implied?
The child is considered capable of observing at 14 in most places barring some circumstance, however, at 18 one is expected to be capable.At what point is this permission rescinded? Once one stops living with one’s parents? After one’s parent passes away? Never?
For example, a child of an Eastern Catholic father and Latin Catholic mother is to be baptized. The parents ask the priest if their child can be “raised in the Latin Church.” The priest says “no problem.” The child is baptized in a Latin church in a Latin ceremony. Confirmation and First Communion are delayed until the child is older. The child is raised observing Latin fasting and holy days.Give an example.
As I’ve written several times here already, the child is enrolled in the ritual Church of the father unless that the parents declare otherwise at the time of baptism.Interesting. What does the law provide for the child whose parents’ intention of different ritual church enrollment for their child was not expressed at the time of the baptism?
Again, no. Nothing has changed.Would the child be enrolled in the parents’ intended, but not expressed, ritual church?
Not / applicableIf so, should any changes be made to the child’s baptismal record?
N/AWould those changes enact the transfer or would those changes simply mark what has always been true, regardless of what the baptismal record previously implied?
It is a bit more subtle than that. It’s more that the bishops can presume the consent of the Holy See and thereby write the letters. The letters cannot be written absent the consent, so the consent must come first. However, such consent is not always needed. Except for some rather rare cases, this is a non-issue.I have heard that the permission of the Apostolic See is presumed when given the written consent of the two eparchies.
I don’t recall offhand. I only recall that he did something. You can research it.Was this Pope Francis’s revision? If not, what was the revision?
That depends on the circumstances. There are several ways (about 5 or 6) that one may transfer. Each situation has its own answer.Furthermore, does a Latin Catholic wishing to transfer ritual churches need to sign or write anything?
Not really. I suppose that the priest could actually write the letter and the signature of the person would suffice, but generally speaking if a canon requires someone to write a letter, that means it needs to be written by the actual person, and in the first person. At a minimum, at least the person’s signature would be necessary.May a Latin Catholic simply verbally request this desire to the local parish priest who then handles all the paperwork himself (on behalf of the Latin Catholic wishing to transfer)?
The purpose of the canon is to keep harmony within the household.At what point is this permission rescinded? Once one stops living with one’s parents? After one’s parent passes away? Never?
The rescript for the Latin canon is here and it is not from Pope Francis.I have heard that the permission of the Apostolic See is presumed when given the written consent of the two eparchies. Was this Pope Francis’s revision? If not, what was the revision?..?
No.Fr. David,
If, in a hypothetical, one’s father is Orthodox and mother Latin - would a Latin baptism enroll that individual Latin?
First, your scenario assumes that the child is Catholic in the first place. For discussion sake, I’ll take that as a given, with the understanding that since the child was baptized Orthodox the presumption is that the child actually is Orthodox, and would then have to take the added step of becoming Catholic. In some instances (such as danger of death) it’s not necessarily a given that because an Orthodox priest baptized, that means the person is Orthodox. In what you’re describing, it seems you mean that it was done intentionally, and therefore the child would be Orthodox (at first)With an Orthodox baptism, would the Catholic Church regard the child as Eastern or Latin, due to only one parent being Catholic? Argument could be made both ways, I suppose a hypothetical EC grandfather on dad’s side only further complicates?