P
Pray4Life
Guest
Now, please remember in the interest of charity no “you are an idiot” replies 
I remember reading, hearing over and over how Barabbas was either a generic violent criminal or a robber. Today’s reading at Mass said something along the lines of him participating in murders during a revolt or something like that. I’m confused about how somebody would get “robber” out of that. Are there multiple translations of this passage, or a particular “pious belief” about what Barabbas is supposed to have done? Is he both of those things (murderer and robber)? I’m sure if the Bible says murderer during revolt then he must have done that, I’m just wondering where I got this other idea from, if it has any merit, if one of the other Gospels uses that term and that’s where I heard it!, if different Church-accepted translations of the Bible specify his crime differently depending on nuances in translation…not because it is a particularly crucial detail, I’m just curious. Maybe I have just been misunderstanding it this whole time. I was raised KJV only. But for all I know it says the same thing in King James English and I totally spaced it. Thanks for any ideas.
I remember reading, hearing over and over how Barabbas was either a generic violent criminal or a robber. Today’s reading at Mass said something along the lines of him participating in murders during a revolt or something like that. I’m confused about how somebody would get “robber” out of that. Are there multiple translations of this passage, or a particular “pious belief” about what Barabbas is supposed to have done? Is he both of those things (murderer and robber)? I’m sure if the Bible says murderer during revolt then he must have done that, I’m just wondering where I got this other idea from, if it has any merit, if one of the other Gospels uses that term and that’s where I heard it!, if different Church-accepted translations of the Bible specify his crime differently depending on nuances in translation…not because it is a particularly crucial detail, I’m just curious. Maybe I have just been misunderstanding it this whole time. I was raised KJV only. But for all I know it says the same thing in King James English and I totally spaced it. Thanks for any ideas.