D
dianaiad
Guest
What difference does that make? How is an offensive act LESS offensive because it is done legally?I would question the assertion that this Imam is less wise than Pope John Paul II but in any case, I do not think that wisdom has anything to do with this issue.
What if the situation was reverse i.e. instead of the Pope telling the nuns to move the convent, what if it was the nuns who told the Pope to move the convent if it was his own land that he himself wanted to build the convent on?
Would that instead be appropriate behavior for either the Pope or the nuns?
The point that I am making here is that Islam views property rights in a far different way than Christians seem to do.
From an Islamic point of view, the Pope had no right, none whatsoever, to tell the nuns to move the convent because it was their private property.
It was not even appropriate for him to publicly advise them to move the convent.
Perhaps he advised them privately on this matter and they acceded to his request… but it was not good advice in my opinion because it infringed on the property rights of the nuns.
For instance, not too long ago a man drew some cartoons of Mohammad. His property. His mind. His acts. His absolute right to draw/write as he wished. He is living in hiding because Muslims didn’t see that his ownership of such things excused his offense.
A few weeks ago a Christian minister proposes purchasing some copies of the Koran, and intended to burn them. Why not? They were his property. He was going to burn them on his property.
Yet…he was threatened with violence. Muslims all over the world reacted very badly to this proposed action, because it was an insult, and intended to be offensive. The preacher didn’t do it, in the end, for whatever reason…
But according to your logic, above, Muslims had no right to be offended at his proposed actions. They were, though, and made that rather obvious.
…or is it only Muslims who have the right to be offended at things like this?