M
mschrank
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Just wondering, before Vatican II, I know the Mass was conducted in Latin but what about the readings? Historically speaking, was the Bible read in the vernacular or was Latin read?
Thanks
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It depends…the general rule was Latin. However there were indults for vernacular readings (e.g. India in 1958, holy Week ad experimentum to Germany in 1959 and a whole slew in the 1960’s. Even earlier such as in the 18th century to Armenia and in the 17th to Georgia). De Musica Sacra allows that a lector may read the vernacular Epistle and GospelJust wondering, before Vatican II, I know the Mass was conducted in Latin but what about the readings? Historically speaking, was the Bible read in the vernacular or was Latin read?
Thanks
This of course refers to a re-reading. An indult was required for a liturgical reading (i.e. in the proper places of the Epistle and Gospel) or place immediately after each liturgical reading, in the vernacularIt is strictly forbidden for the faithful in unison or for a commentator to recite aloud with the priest the parts of the Proper, Ordinary, and canon of the Mass. This prohibition extends to both Latin, and a vernacular word-for-word translation. Exceptions will be enumerated in paragraph 31.However, it is desirable that a lector read the Epistle and Gospel in the vernacular for the benefit of the faithful at low Masses on Sundays and feast days. Between the Consecration, and the Pater noster a holy silence is fitting.
Its actually pretty obvious why isn’t it? Got to be able to bash it somehow.Two posters have given good responses to your question. Are you skipping over the bits where they describe re-reading the Scripture in vernacular?
Whoa…![]()
Does enjoin in this context mean forbid or direct?Also, local synods and councils sometimes enjoined the reading of Scripture in the vernacular before the sermon. For example, the first Synod of Baltimore (1791) enjoined the re-reading of the Gospel for Sundays and feasts before the sermon in the vernacular.
yes for a few years (late 40s to early 60s) before the “changes of V2” and the rite introduced by Pope Paul VI were fully implemented, as part of ongoing liturgical reform initiated by various 20th C popes, esp. Pius XII, the readings were proclaimed first in Latin as they had been at least since Trent, and then in the vernacular language of the people. Preaching had been in the vernacular at least through the 20th c probably earlierJust wondering, before Vatican II, I know the Mass was conducted in Latin but what about the readings? Historically speaking, was the Bible read in the vernacular or was Latin read?
Thanks
Does enjoin in this context mean forbid or direct?
Apologize for what? You completely ignored several exlanatory posts, brought up a situation that no one on this forum could possibly answer completely and knowingly, given a lack of documentation from that time period and sat back in self righteous indignation that 13th century French peasants might have had the Mass read to them in Latin.And you infer I’m a heretic from one critical post… Stop crying wolf. I’m as orthodox as the next guy. You should apologize.
However I was not sure whether reading in the vernacular was common, or if it was in extraordinary circumstances only. It seems to have been the latter.
Pretty disappointing.
I think you have a problem with that because about the only place people get Catechisis is from the Mass. The correct way is for the ‘peasants’ to be taught from the Scriptures throughout the week, both from Psalters (in the vernacular) and from general instruction.Whoa…
Why would the Church use a language nobody spoke to speak to the people on important scriptural matters? What happened to Jerome and his “ignorance of scripture is ignorance of Christ”?
So you’re saying if you were to walk into a Parish in a small village in rural France in say, 1350, the Priest would have been reading to the peasants in Latin?