Being married to one wife vs. Being married only once

  • Thread starter Thread starter Montie_Claunch
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Montie_Claunch

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I was reading my bible (NAB) and I noticed that it read on the section regarding bishops that they should be married only once where I know that the KJV says that a bishop should be the “husband of one wife”. I can’t remeber where it is, I think in one of the books of Timothy. Either way, noticing the diffrence of translation, could someone lead me somewhere that shows from the best orignial text we have what is the proper translation of the text? Thanks and God bless.
 
The RSV: CE will be a good bet. Either way, the KJV and accuracy aren’t bedfellows. The KJV is very poetic in its writing and for its time it was accurate, relatively. With that said, it is a poetic, dynamic translation of a St. Jerome’s Vulgate which was a Latin translation of circulated Greek texts. So, in summary, it was an Aramaic transition to Greek then to Latin and then to English. Try doing that in a language engine to see what comes out. 🙂
 
Montie, my understanding of this, has always been that this was referring to the earliest attempts at doing away with polygamy…That clergy could not have more than one wife.
Oh, & the RSV-CE is a great Bible.
 
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