Do you know much about nominalism?
Beyond the name, not really.
The kind of philosophical classification an Aristotelian would talk about is not that of a modern day biologist. The philosopher would classify based upon kinds of capacities found in a thing’s nature, while a biologist would often classify with regards to mating.
Here I question the value of the philosophical notion of ‘essence’ as distinct from actual existence. It seems to me the very idea of an ‘essence’ or ‘nature’ some entity possesses tends to the belief in premeditated design, a set of qualities built in to an entity, rather than a set of qualities that entity manifests through its particular existence. It doesn’t seem, to me, useful to pursue, in philosophy, a study of - largely speculative and prescriptive - qualities which certain entities are
supposed to possess (or ought to pursue) because they have the ‘nature’ of some category of beings; all this in apparent disconnection from biological classification, which takes into account not just genetic relationship and mating ability, but bodily structure and behavioural tendency - all of which are mutable. Anything that distinguishes humans from apes biologically is a legitimate distinguishing feature, as far as it goes - this distinction doesn’t justify, in my view, the supposition that ‘human nature’ is so radically different from ‘ape nature’ as to occupy a separate and rarefied metaphysical category.
These are common objections that can be answered. If you bring specific arguments I could probably critique them for you.
They are
very common objections, which I have seen argued both ways and will not take up extra time rehashing here; suffice to say that whilst they may be answerable individually, to varying degrees of satisfaction, taken together they provide a significant grounding for doubt as to whether the God of Classical Theism is a tenable concept.
We cannot imagine such an act without change. What you are probably thinking of is on the macro level and does not address specifically the precise principles of change that make up the definition that Scholastics use when they say God cannot change.
So in order to get around the notion that action produces change, Scholastics simply redefine ‘change’? That is the same kind of accusation levelled at the likes of Lawrence Krauss and other cosmologists who have supposedly redefined ‘nothing’ to come up with a physical explanation for the origin of the universe. The justification is that the philosopher’s ‘nothing’, a state of nonexistence, never did - probably never could - obtain; I suppose there could be an explanation of how God can change in such that he remains exactly the same - perhaps God does not himself change, but only changes in his relationship to other entities? I don’t know…
Omnipotence does not lend support to the problem of evil. God could create a better world as there is no such thing as the perfectest of finite worlds. So someone wishes to have a world without sin–then no free-will. Someone wishes to have a world without natural disasters–then no techtonic plates and the conditions necessary to life in the first place… It all comes down to this: people usually can’t see the importance of suffering, especially when they are in the throws of it. Does that mean suffering is meaningless?
I’d hesitate to cite ‘perfection’ in any argument regarding the problem of evil - most people who pursue this argument have no expectation of perfection. That is left to those who define God as perfect! The argument runs that an omnipotent and genuinely benevolent God
could have made the world behave in such a way as to manifest far less suffering on the part of sentient beings; and being omnipotent, could have done so such that it preserves free will (if that is really
the all-important consideration it is claimed to be in the front-running counterargument to the philosophical problem of evil) and maintains the natural development of the universe. Even if there had been a dozen fewer serial killers in the past century or so, the world would have been
better from the point of view of the experience of sentient beings. Is it
logically contradictory for an omnipotent, benevolent God to have brought this about? As for the significance of suffering itself, it can certainly be said suffering makes us stronger, better able to cope with life’s trials, and more compassionate - it does all these things, but none would be as necessary in a world with less suffering.
While what you bring up is very interesting from an evolutionary point of view it is pretty much besides the point when you bring Aquinas’ arguments to the fore. It’s not metaphysics you’re bringing up because what kind of existence do rules have?
Any discussion of ‘rules’ always raises the semantic problem of how ‘rules’ are defined in context. Physical laws are descriptive, not prescriptive - they are observations of the way matter and energy characteristically behave. To tie this to the notion of limits and simplicity,
very simple entities behave always in certain ways because they haven’t the capacity or complexity to behave in other ways - their options are limited by virtue of their very simplicity. I could accept an argument that applied the same notion of simplicity to God - that he was limited to certain actions - but any being described as omnipotent, who has practically limitless options,
could not be simple in this way. How radically different a definition could ‘simplicity’ take before it ceases to be anything like simplicity?