Bertrand Russell

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Plato’s Euthyphro.

Although Socrates doesn’t actually answer the question in that dialogue. I posted that more to remind everyone of just how old this objection/issue is. Russell is certainly not the first one to think of it, nor is this a question that affects only Christian beliefs. I haven’t read the rest of the thread, but I’m sure that in seven pages someone must have posted the standard answer (really, Bertrand Russell; do you think Christians never thought that one through? :rolleyes:).
Not only does Socrates not answer the question, he is the one depicted by Plato as having asked it. He doesn’t think there is a good answer. He thinks that you are stuck either way and that the way out is to drop the idea that morality has anything to do with God.

What is the “standard answer”?
 
Not only does Socrates not answer the question, he is the one depicted by Plato as having asked it. He doesn’t think there is a good answer. He thinks that you are stuck either way and that the way out is to drop the idea that morality has anything to do with God. What is the “standard answer”?
I don’t know about “standard answer” but you seem to have missed this:
Code:
              If we believe God is all-good and define evil (or "bad") as a privation of good, then there was originally no "bad" for God to distinguish from "good" because God was all that existed until He created the world. So "good" and "bad" cannot precede God.            
                     So we are left with the other horn: did God arbitrarily determine what to command as "good" and "bad"? "Goodness" is a facet of the fact that "God is love" (a mysterious tautology due to our limited human intellect).
(My comment: I don’t think it is quite so mysterious. Can you imagine genuine love as being evil? Or even neutral? Love entails desire for the well-being and happiness of another person (and oneself!). It is goodness in action !🙂 )
Does this mean that God is not omnipotent? It depends on your Definition. If you believe “omnipotent” means being able to do anything, regardless of definitions, reality, the law of contradiction, etc., then God is not omnipotent.
(My comment: This belief is illogical and irrational. Amongst other absurdities it would mean God is capable of destroying Himself! :eek:)
But if we believe that God is love and His power, essence, will, intellect, wisdom, and justice are all identical, we realize His inability to say “rape is good” is not due to lack of power, but because it is against His very reality He has revealed to us as love. It is impossible for the same reason that it is impossible to draw a square circle: contradictory definitions.
 
Not only does Socrates not answer the question, he is the one depicted by Plato as having asked it. He doesn’t think there is a good answer. He thinks that you are stuck either way and that the way out is to drop the idea that morality has anything to do with God.
I know. And I saw - after I posted - that many people had already brought Socrates into the discussion. My point in bringing up the Euthyphro was to remind everyone that this is a very old philosophical problem for ethics, and also that it is not a problem only for Christians (the Euthyphro proves that because it was written before Christianity even existed).
What is the “standard answer”?
I meant the standard Christian answer. As you pointed out, there are other views on the subject as well. I’m sure it has already been brought up in this thread (as I admitted before, I have not read the thread), so I apologize if what I say has already been covered, responded to, etc. Thank you for trying to bring me into the discussion, Leela, and if I backtrack annoyingly to what has already been covered, don’t feel obligated to bring me up to speed with the rest of the thread.

Anyway, before I give my explanation of the Christian view on this ethical problem, let me begin by presenting two more obvious solutions to contrast it with.

Plato actually does have an answer to this question elsewhere. He essentially says that yes, God (the “Demiurge”) says something is good because it really is.

For Plato the highest thing there can be is the Form of the Good (the sun in the allegory of the cave), as you probably already know. Plato also believed in a creator God (the Demiurge), but this creator God - according to him - is separate from the Form of the Good. The standards of right and wrong, good and evil, justice and injustice, etc. are not arbitrarily determined by God/Demiurge, but are actually dictated to this Creator God from a higher source - the Form of the Good. So Plato does believe there is something higher than the being which created the world (“God”).

Some Islamic philosophies take the opposite view - that something is good because God says it is. In this view, God - we can continue calling God the “Demiurge” to keep the parallel clear - is the highest authority and good and evil are divinely subjective. In this view God is above “the good”, which He fully determines. Good and evil are, in a sense, arbitrarily dictated and could be changed by God, Who is absolutely supreme.

Christianity takes a more nuanced view that is less obvious and took longer to develop - and which built on the insights first offered by thinkers like Plato. Christianity essentially denies that there are only two options: we don’t have to say that good is either determined by God’s subjective decisions or determines God from outside.

Christian philosophers say that God (the Creator, the Demiurge) is that which Plato called “the Form of the Good.” They are one and the same. Objective standards of goodness and righteousness are a part of God’s very nature - they are not arbitrary, because He can no more change what is good to what is evil than He could eliminate His own existence, create a square circle, commit evil, or do anything else that contradicts His nature.

So morality is not divinely subjective. But nor is it objectively determined by something outside of God, because - as I mentioned above - the moral dictates of divine practical reason are necessarily determined by His divine nature itself, which is a part of the being of God.
 
I meant the standard Christian answer. As you pointed out, there are other views on the subject as well. I’m sure it has already been brought up in this thread (as I admitted before, I have not read the thread), so I apologize if what I say has already been covered, responded to, etc.
The traditional solution to the dilemma was offered on the first page of this thread as well as many other places. Though I think you gave a very clear walkthrough of the problem, one of the better ones.

As far as I am concerned I think we have answered the OP sufficiently. The remainder has been a somewhat meandering deviation (that I am in no doubt guilty of furthering).

The traditional answer isn’t question begging at all. On the first page of the thread, I think we got sidetracked because we focused too much on God’s essence being His existence instead of showing that the OP is sufficiently dealt with.

peace,
Michael
 
You mean just like it’s always been throughout human history and religious history.
Sort of. However, you have to make the distinction between determining moral guidelines (discovery) and following them. My response referred to discovery. Christianity and most other religions derive their moral system on revelation or some kind of transmission of the will of God or gods to man. The problem with discovery in religion is more of dissemination of the revealed truth (evangelization), and interpretation of revelation. In an atheistic/naturalistic view, where it is charged to man alone to discover morality it would take a long period of building on top of previous knowledge and experience and there never is a concrete source to point to as reference. Relativism would run rampant aside from a few obviously agreed upon tenants, like murder, rape and stealing are bad.
 
I don’t know about “standard answer” but you seem to have missed this:
d_erford;5256567:
Code:
              If we believe God is all-good and define evil (or "bad") as a privation of good, then there was originally no "bad" for God to distinguish from "good" because God was all that existed until He created the world. So "good" and "bad" cannot precede God.            
                     So we are left with the other horn: did God arbitrarily determine what to command as "good" and "bad"? "Goodness" is a facet of the fact that "God is love" (a mysterious tautology due to our limited human intellect).
(My comment: I don’t think it is quite so mysterious. Can you imagine genuine love as being evil? Or even neutral? Love entails desire for the well-being and happiness of another person (and oneself!). It is goodness in action !🙂 )
Does this mean that God is not omnipotent? It depends on your Definition. If you believe “omnipotent” means being able to do anything, regardless of definitions, reality, the law of contradiction, etc., then God is not omnipotent.
(My comment: This belief is illogical and irrational. Amongst other absurdities it would mean God is capable of destroying Himself! :eek:)
But if we believe that God is love and His power, essence, will, intellect, wisdom, and justice are all identical, we realize His inability to say “rape is good” is not due to lack of power, but because it is against His very reality He has revealed to us as love. It is impossible for the same reason that it is impossible to draw a square circle: contradictory definitions.
This sounds like you are jumping back and forth between the two horns of the dilemma using one horn to justify accepting the other and vice versa. Ultimately I can’t tell what your position is. Did you accept either horn?
 
Sort of. However, you have to make the distinction between determining moral guidelines (discovery) and following them. My response referred to discovery. Christianity and most other religions derive their moral system on revelation or some kind of transmission of the will of God or gods to man. The problem with discovery in religion is more of dissemination of the revealed truth (evangelization), and interpretation of revelation. In an atheistic/naturalistic view, where it is charged to man alone to discover morality it would take a long period of building on top of previous knowledge and experience and there never is a concrete source to point to as reference. Relativism would run rampant aside from a few obviously agreed upon tenants, like murder, rape and stealing are bad.
The main problem with these revelations is that they are completely indistinquishable from claims somebody completely made up. Probably just a coincidence and means nothing.
 
This sounds like you are jumping back and forth between the two horns of the dilemma using one horn to justify accepting the other and vice versa. Ultimately I can’t tell what your position is. Did you accept either horn?
Hello, Leela.

I’m afraid I’m about to go on a retreat where I won’t have internet access for 8 days, so I currently do not have the time to give you the response you deserve. Hopefully some one else will pick it up. Overall, though, I did speak how faith is required and it is part mystery, so I doubt a satisfactory answer can be given to a non-believer.
 
Christian philosophers say that God (the Creator, the Demiurge) is that which Plato called “the Form of the Good.” They are one and the same. Objective standards of goodness and righteousness are a part of God’s very nature - they are not arbitrary, because He can no more change what is good to what is evil than He could eliminate His own existence, create a square circle, commit evil, or do anything else that contradicts His nature.
I’m curious what Leela will say to this, since this is essentially what I’ve been saying all along. I don’t think she felt that what I said about God’s existence and his essence being one and the same adequately addressed the dilemma; but then she also didn’t seem to quite understand what I was saying (which is probably my fault).
 
Not only does Socrates not answer the question, he is the one depicted by Plato as having asked it. He doesn’t think there is a good answer. He thinks that you are stuck either way and that the way out is to drop the idea that morality has anything to do with God.

What is the “standard answer”?
I don’t get why you need one. If you enjoy being an atheist or non-believer why
are you not simply content to be so? Why all the heavy lifting if it doesn’t lead
to “something” for you? Unless you’re so upset with people who push their ideas
on you that you’ve got to ask question after question, which they may not be able to
satisfyingly answer to match your intellect.

Anyway, the concept isn’t the thing. As the good book says: “One man’s meat is another
man’s poison.” Now why does the bible say that?

Just a thought.
 
tonyrey;5259934:
I don’t know about “standard answer” but you seem to have missed this:
This sounds like you are jumping back and forth between the two horns of the dilemma using one horn to justify accepting the other and vice versa. Ultimately I can’t tell what your position is. Did you accept either horn?
It is not necessary to accept either horn because it is a false dilemma arising from a misguided attempt to impose human categories on Ultimate Reality.
 
It is not necessary to accept either horn because it is a false dilemma arising from a misguided attempt to impose human categories on Ultimate Reality.
Well actually, it seems like the 2nd horn is accepted… just that the conclusion doesn’t imply a standard higher than God.
 
When I was a teenager I read Bertrand Russell’s “Why I am not a Christian”, and it seriously blew my mind. That book was one of the major factors in turning me into an atheist for a few years. I picked it up again the other day, for the first time in about ten years, and I was underwhelmed, to say the least. One of his arguments does have me puzzled, though. I’ll just quote from the book for clarity:

“If you are quite sure that there is a difference between right and wrong, then you are in this situation: Is that difference due to God’s fiat or not?If it is due to God’s fiat, then for God himself there is no difference between right and wrong, and it is no longer a significant statement to say that God is good. If you are going to say, as theologians do, that God is good, then you must say that right and wrong have some meaning which is independent of God’s fiat, because God’s fiats are good and not bad independently of the fact that he made them. If you are going to say that, you will then have to say that it is not only through God that right and wrong came into being, but that they are in their essence logically anterior to God.”

Anybody want to help me out on this one, or point me towards a good book on the subject?

Pat
My solution is to place the atheist on the defense rather than God. Don’t atheists claim to understand moral concepts such as good and evil? Why not ask the atheist to explain how it is possible in a random and purposeless universe to understand moral concepts such as right and wrong, good and evil?
 
My solution is to place the atheist on the defense rather than God. Don’t atheists claim to understand moral concepts such as good and evil? Why not ask the atheist to explain how it is possible in a random and purposeless universe to understand moral concepts such as right and wrong, good and evil?
Welcome!🙂 Atheists will correct me if I am mistaken but their standard explanations are:
  1. Good and evil are just human concepts.
  2. Good and evil are the products of human evolution.
    So far I have not come across an explanation of the principles of liberty, equality and fraternity…
 
Welcome!🙂 Atheists will correct me if I am mistaken but their standard explanations are:
  1. Good and evil are just human concepts.
  2. Good and evil are the products of human evolution.
    So far I have not come across an explanation of the principles of liberty, equality and fraternity…
Of course good and evil are human concepts. What other sort of concepts are there?
 
Christian philosophers say that God (the Creator, the Demiurge) is that which Plato called “the Form of the Good.” They are one and the same. Objective standards of goodness and righteousness are a part of God’s very nature - they are not arbitrary, because He can no more change what is good to what is evil than He could eliminate His own existence, create a square circle, commit evil, or do anything else that contradicts His nature.

So morality is not divinely subjective. But nor is it objectively determined by something outside of God, because - as I mentioned above - the moral dictates of divine practical reason are necessarily determined by His divine nature itself, which is a part of the being of God.
Is “goodness” essential to God’s nature because it is good, or is “goodness” good because it is essential to God’s nature?
 
My solution is to place the atheist on the defense rather than God. Don’t atheists claim to understand moral concepts such as good and evil? Why not ask the atheist to explain how it is possible in a random and purposeless universe to understand moral concepts such as right and wrong, good and evil?
I think any definition of good that an atheist tries to give will be tautological, BUT what Russell’s comments demonstrate is that by claiming God as the basis of morality the theist doesn’t actually get herself out of the same tautologies.

The difference between atheists and theists in their talk about morality is that the atheists will use a vocabulary involving human flourishing whereas the theist will use a vocabulary involving God’s will or commands. There is no foundation that anyone has ever discovered that stands outside of these views that can be used to decide between them. Of course the theist can try to beg the question by invoking faith, but the atheist won’t buy it. So again, there is no non-question begging foundation that either side can appeal to to win any arguments against the other in establishing a foundation for their moral beliefs.
 
Hi Leela,

When you say “God as the basis of morality”, do you infer that God arbitrarily created moral laws or that God commands us to follow them. If it is the second, which I think is what Christians believe, myself and d_erford already answered that.

“The difference between atheists and theists in their talk about morality is that the atheists will use a vocabulary involving human flourishing whereas the theist will use a vocabulary involving God’s will or commands.”

I think atheists use a vocabulary involving human flourishing exclusivly, because there is nothing else, whereas the theist gains a more complete perspective of human flourishing through God’s will and commands.
 
Hi Leela,

When you say “God as the basis of morality”, do you infer that God arbitrarily created moral laws or that God commands us to follow them. If it is the second, which I think is what Christians believe, myself and d_erford already answered that.
I only meant whatever it is the a particular believer believes about the relationship between God and morality.

I said:
“The difference between atheists and theists in their talk about morality is that the atheists will use a vocabulary involving human flourishing whereas the theist will use a vocabulary involving God’s will or commands.”
I think atheists use a vocabulary involving human flourishing exclusivly, because there is nothing else, whereas the theist gains a more complete perspective of human flourishing through God’s will and commands.
As I said, this just begs the question between theists and atheists who doubt that such a perspective exists. From the atheists perspective you gain nothing.
 
The difference between atheists and theists in their talk about morality is that the atheists will use a vocabulary involving human flourishing whereas the theist will use a vocabulary involving God’s will or commands.
When you refer to ‘human flourishing’ are you talking about human survival?
 
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