Best catholic Bible version to read?

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Would you care to elaborate on this profound exhortation?

Cite where my analysis is wrong.
You were whining. That wasn’t a big hit with me. If you are complaining about being frustrated by having to explain things multiple times over different threads then perhaps you need a break.

As for your analysis, it was great. I found it enlightening.
 
I prefer the Douai-Rheims because I know that I can trust it is free from doctrinal error. I also like the language. My copy even has the encyclical Providentissimus Deus by Pope Leo XIII printed before the Scriptures themselves begin.

I also enjoy the King James Version occasionally because I have a facsimile edition of the 1611, and I like all of the older spellings and the beautiful language (although D-R also has very beautiful language). Also, I think its valid to appreciate the KJV, especially because I go to a Roman Catholic Anglican Use parish, although they actually use the RSV-CE for the lectionary.

I see nothing wrong with using the RSV-CE, but I love the beauty of the older language too much to use it.
 
Some say that the Douay-Rheims is the best Bible version to read. However, it’s archaic language makes it a little hard to understand. Others, like Catholic Answers, say that the Revised Standard Version - Catholic Edition is the best Bible version to read. It has much more modern language. Personally, I use both. I also use the New American Bible which is the Bible version that the United States Conference of Catholic Bishops and all American Masses use. I am not sure if the traditional Latin Mass uses the New American Bible or not.
 
The best way to lie is to tell part of the truth.

“In the presence of Christ” tells part of the truth.

“In the person of Christ” tells the fullness of truth.

The fullness of truth lies in the Latin Vulgate–not in the Protestant RSV-CE!

The FACE of Christ is much closer to His person than to His presence!

And its not a matter of whether “person” denies Catholic dogma or not–Catholic dogma does not rest entirely on the literal words of scripture.

But it does matter to a Protestant who denies the very thought of translating it as “person” since he doesn’t believe in confession or granting absolution at all.

And the reason it was translated that way in the KJV was even the Protestants at that time were less eager to ditch the literal truth of scripture.

The people who translated the RSV had no problem doing so–and of course they could always hedge what they were saying and give a reasonable explanation.

The devil is good at giving reasonable explanations–he’s been doing so ever since Adam and Eve!

The text is a classic case of doctrine that was referred to in Trent. The Vulgate does not err and it can be used “in all disputations”.

There is a “disputation” on whether person or presence is the correct translation.

The Protestants are just plain wrong!

But more than that Catholics who defend them are even more wrong!

Such ecumenical concern in biblical translation is the very thing that the devil uses to obscure the truth!

I’m not saying that the defenders are working for the devil–I am saying that he uses their good intentions for his evil purposes!

If a Protestant is considering the Catholic faith they need to hear the REAL bible–not their error plagued one!

They need to hear “In the person of Christ”–they need to hear how their beloved KJV translated that way so they can be led to the Catholic doctrine of confession and absolution!

They need to hear “Supersubstantial bread” from the Vulgate so they can be led to the doctrine of transubstantiation!

Some will not be led by the all the other best arguments. Some WILL be led by Catholic translation!

And why is that? Because many of them come from a LITERALIST tradition concerning the bible.

I don’t expect lifelong Catholics to relate to that–but I tell you what–do a poll of Catholic converts and ask THEM if knowing the correct translation of the Vulgate would have helped them on their journey to the Catholic faith!

Would it turn some away thinking that the Catholic Church had perverted the bible–of course–some do turn away from the truth!

But the majority of converts who were earnestly searching for the truth will tell you that it would have helped them in their journey!

St. Paul forgave the incestuous Corinthian more than MERELY in the presence of Christ–he did in fact forgive him in the person of Christ!

It does matter!

Does that mean that the RSV-CE is worthless? Of course not!

It does mean though that sometime the RSV-CE translates through Protestant eyes and not the eyes of the Catholic Church!

Even the KJV translators were not completely blinded by their Protestantism! The RSV translators were!
 
OK, the people on here know more than the Pope, Cardinal Levada, the authors of the Navarre Bible, the authors of the Ignatius Study Bible (Scott Hahn and Curtis Mitch) - since these other people either use or have approved the RSV-CE, they must all be protestant moles or secret-agents.

Good job uncovering them!
 
And just because they “Use it” or “Approve” people using it does not mean that they agree with every textual variant decision it used in translating it.

And just because they “approve it” does not mean that they would agree with its translating decisions in verses that involve matters of faith and doctrine AGAINST the Vulgate.

Press them on THAT question! If pressed they would support the Vuilgate!

And if you don’t think that Pope Benedict XVI is capable of distinguing such things read his encyclical on Hope where he prefers the Vulgate over the RSV!

See it is possible to “use” the RSV-CE and still know that the Vulgate is superior on doctrinal matters! He can do that! Why can’t the RSV lovers do that?!
 
I am going to have to agree with Jerry-Jet on this one. The Pope probably uses several different Bibles for writings and everything else spiritually. Some of these people would actually jump off a bridge if the Pope told them to. I believe in the Popes latest encyclical, he emphasized on utilizing the 1962 Roman Missal and practice some traditional methods. I could be wrong, maybe he feels that the 1962 and the Vulgate should be tossed in the fire. From what I even gathered about anything to do with the Pope is that he wants us to be familiar with the Latin Rite and its documents concerning it. I believe that the Pope is trying lead all to Christ. I don’t believe the Pope’s encyclical stressed on the use of the RSV-CE and Protestant based doctrine. Maybe again, I might be wrong and that all he wants us to utilize is the RSV-CE
 
I am going to have to agree with Jerry-Jet on this one. The Pope probably uses several different Bibles for writings and everything else spiritually. Some of these people would actually jump off a bridge if the Pope told them to. I believe in the Popes latest encyclical, he emphasized on utilizing the 1962 Roman Missal and practice some traditional methods. I could be wrong, maybe he feels that the 1962 and the Vulgate should be tossed in the fire. From what I even gathered about anything to do with the Pope is that he wants us to be familiar with the Latin Rite and its documents concerning it. I believe that the Pope is trying lead all to Christ. I don’t believe the Pope’s encyclical stressed on the use of the RSV-CE and Protestant based doctrine. Maybe again, I might be wrong and that all he wants us to utilize is the RSV-CE
I would jump off a bridge if the Pope told me so. My question is, why wouldn’t you?

The Pope has not said we should use the RSV. We’re saying he DOES use the RSV himself, so it’s good enough for me. So he used the Vulgate in his encyclical. So? He recognized where the Vulgate had a better rendering. None of us “RSV-lovers” have a problem with that.

The encyclical Divino Afflante Spiritu did NOT endorse the RSV. It DID recognize the authority of the original languages over any translations, and the Vulgate is only a translation. The Congregation for Divine Worship required that Scripture readings be made primarily from the original languages. So those of you who demand “photographic” evidence of original manuscripts are being unreasonable and hold opinions contrary to the desires of the Church.

As for polling converts, they most likely converted from reading their cherished Protestant Bibles: the NIV, KJV, and NASB. Those Protestant translations have probably led more people into the Church more than any Catholic edition ever did.

All we are saying is that if you don’t like the RSV, then don’t. But don’t put down those who do, because that crowd includes the Pope and the Holy See. If their opinions don’t matter to you then that’s between you and them. But the Holy See’s opinion matters to me.
 
I would jump off a bridge if the Pope told me so. My question is, why wouldn’t you?

The Pope has not said we should use the RSV. We’re saying he DOES use the RSV himself, so it’s good enough for me. So he used the Vulgate in his encyclical. So? He recognized where the Vulgate had a better rendering. None of us “RSV-lovers” have a problem with that.

The encyclical Divino Afflante Spiritu did NOT endorse the RSV. It DID recognize the authority of the original languages over any translations, and the Vulgate is only a translation. The Congregation for Divine Worship required that Scripture readings be made primarily from the original languages. So those of you who demand “photographic” evidence of original manuscripts are being unreasonable and hold opinions contrary to the desires of the Church.

As for polling converts, they most likely converted from reading their cherished Protestant Bibles: the NIV, KJV, and NASB. Those Protestant translations have probably led more people into the Church more than any Catholic edition ever did.

All we are saying is that if you don’t like the RSV, then don’t. But don’t put down those who do, because that crowd includes the Pope and the Holy See. If their opinions don’t matter to you then that’s between you and them. But the Holy See’s opinion matters to me.
I would not ever jump off a bridge because the Pope told me to. I have no reason to ever jump off a bridge. When I posted my 1st post on this thread, I do so in a manner I felt the OP would find helpful. He wanted to know what version would be the best to read. I gave him a thoughtful answer, The Douay-Rheims. In all honesty the Douay-Rheims isn’t the best translation for everybody to read. He said that he didn’t care for the NAB, so I politely suggested the Jerusalem Bible. I politely suggested to stay away from the RSV-CE for the fact the he wants a CATHOLIC Bible not a Protestant based Catholic Bible. Immediately I had a bunch of crybabies whining because I suggested staying away from the RSV-CE. I am not trying to put you down in any way. I most likely feel the same way if I were Protestant and wanted to read a PROTESTANT Bible, I wouldn’t want a CATHOLIC based PROSTANT Bible. Do you see where I am going with this???
 
I would not ever jump off a bridge because the Pope told me to. I have no reason to ever jump off a bridge. When I posted my 1st post on this thread, I do so in a manner I felt the OP would find helpful. He wanted to know what version would be the best to read. I gave him a thoughtful answer, The Douay-Rheims. In all honesty the Douay-Rheims isn’t the best translation for everybody to read. He said that he didn’t care for the NAB, so I politely suggested the Jerusalem Bible. I politely suggested to stay away from the RSV-CE for the fact the he wants a CATHOLIC Bible not a Protestant based Catholic Bible. Immediately I had a bunch of crybabies whining because I suggested staying away from the RSV-CE. I am not trying to put you down in any way. I most likely feel the same way if I were Protestant and wanted to read a PROTESTANT Bible, I wouldn’t want a CATHOLIC based PROSTANT Bible. Do you see where I am going with this???
Aren’t you the guy who didn’t know what the Immaculate Conception is? Maybe you should spend some time learning the basics of the Catholic faith and not so much attacking authorized translations of the Holy Bible.
 
I do know what the Immaculate Conception is. Just because an event happened earlier in time doesn’t mean something down the line because of this event, it becomes a major factor.Mary becoming conceived and born without original sin is a major factor in her perpetual virginity, relationship with God and the Angel and Elizabeth telling her that she is blessed among women. If Mary wasn’t conceived Immaculately she would haven’t been blessed among women. So in this case of Luke 1:28 not having the Angel tell Mary that blessed are thou among women diminishes the Immaculate Conception. Mary being conceived IS one of many reasons that she is blessed among women
 
I do know what the Immaculate Conception is. Just because an event happened earlier in time doesn’t mean something down the line because of this event, it becomes a major factor.Mary becoming conceived and born without original sin is a major factor in her perpetual virginity, relationship with God and the Angel and Elizabeth telling her that she is blessed among women. If Mary wasn’t conceived Immaculately she would haven’t been blessed among women. So in this case of Luke 1:28 not having the Angel tell Mary that blessed are thou among women diminishes the Immaculate Conception. Mary being conceived IS one of many reasons that she is blessed among women
If the angel didn’t say it, then nobody, Catholic or Protestant has any business putting words in his mouth, no matter how true it is.
 
I have already cited this a dozen times before only to have this poor exegesis pop up again.

The primary translation for “prosopon” is not person, but "face, which is rendered in Latin as “persona”, which is properly translated into English as “persona” or “presence”. The more precise Greek for “person” is “hypostasis”. The “presence” of Christ is therefore not a “lie” or “denies” in persona Christi as some would like to pretend, but a proper and reasonable translation of the Greek term.

I absolutely believe in “in persona Christi” when it comes to the Sacraments, but it’s useless energy wasted to tie into knots over a properly translated verse that denies nothing of Catholic dogma whatsoever.
I agree with this, however I would also like to note that if, as you say, “Prosopon” means “Face”, then it’s most representative translation is most certainly “in the Person of Christ”, because in using “face” it may indeed be talking about the open representation of Christ and “In the face of christ” sounds insulting and just a plain wrong way of translating it in order to get the meaning of “representing” Christ across(in both latin and English).

This likely weighed on the original translators when they put it in Latin so they choose to use the substitute word “Persona”(meaning “Mask” in English and more importantly “Character” and “Personality”, translations you failed to mention). This is a problem of Translation because NONE of these translations can fully express properly the exact same phrase as “in the Face of Christ”(as it is in the original language) but “Person”, “Character” or “Personage”(which is another possibly valid translation) is quite likely the best way of expressing the spiritual meaning of the verse in English.

“In the Character of Christ”
“In the Person of Christ”
“In the Personage of Christ”

From the usage of the Latin word “Persona”(Mask) to originally translate the Greek word for “face”, these three alternative translations can clearly be considered far more accurate than the word “Presence” which does not pertain to any sort of Representative ideal.

“In Persona Christi” is fully validated by the fact that “Persona” means in Latin also “Mask” and “Character”.
 
Are you serious pal? Get a grip.

The problem isn’t how it was translated into English a hundred years ago or how it’s translated now. The problem is that there is difference between the two. Someone is going to say “in the person of Christ” isn’t accurate. That is why the changed the translation. In the "presence"or in the “sight” of Christ is accurate. So when a Catholic says the priest is doing something In persona Christi “in the person of Christ” they are misusing scripture yet again and are just plain wrong. That is the problem.

And you might be in the need of break. This sort of thing will come up time after time. If the amount of repetition is getting to you, take a few days off so you don’t burn out.
See previous post…

If the Greek for “face” was used, and in Latin they translated it as “Persona” which primarily means “Mask”(obviously why they used it here! I mean “Face” and “Mask”!) but also means “Character”, “Personage” and ALSO “Presence”, than the use of the words “Person”(Pertaining to the other following 2 words which “Person” can actually also mean in English), “Character” and “Personage” in English is fully representative of the spiritual and literal intentions of the verse.

“In the Face of Christ” doesn’t make sense in english and neither would the latin translation of Mask(“Persona”), so we must use “Person”, “Character” or “Personage” which is ALSO what the Latin word can be translated as.
 
See previous post…

If the Greek for “face” was used, and in Latin they translated it as “Persona” which primarily means “Mask”(obviously why they used it here! I mean “Face” and “Mask”!) but also means “Character”, “Personage” and ALSO “Presence”, than the use of the words “Person”(Pertaining to the other following 2 words which “Person” can actually also mean in English), “Character” and “Personage” in English is fully representative of the spiritual and literal intentions of the verse.

“In the Face of Christ” doesn’t make sense in english and neither would the latin translation of Mask(“Persona”), so we must use “Person”, “Character” or “Personage” which is ALSO what the Latin word can be translated as.
Really, I do not object a single bit to translating this verse as “in the person of”, since it is a fine, valid translation. A search of all my posts will show that not a single time did I ever object to this translation.

What I’m trying to drive home is that “in the presence of” is NOT a wrong translation either, as the Douay-Rheims itself attests in other places where “prosopon” appears, and neither does it contradict Catholic dogma whatsoever.
 
Really, I do not object a single bit to translating this verse as “in the person of”, since it is a fine, valid translation. A search of all my posts will show that not a single time did I ever object to this translation.

What I’m trying to drive home is that “in the presence of” is NOT a wrong translation either, as the Douay-Rheims itself attests in other places where “prosopon” appears, and neither does it contradict Catholic dogma whatsoever.
yes I agree with you. I believe “Person” is the best translation but I will not argue with “Presence”. I do not believe it is representative of the original work because of how they translated it into latin with the word that primarily means “Mask” or “Character”, But I do understand why some would allow that translation because it is also what the latin word can mean, but not in the primary sense. I was more actually responding to RedSox’s incorrect ruling out of “Person”, because it’s clearly wrong.
 
I never ruled it out. That is not what I was saying at all. Read again what I wrote and you’ll see what my issue was with this whole case.

My issue was that the change of wording would cause Protestant to allege that Catholics misuse scripture. I never said that the use of “the presence of Christ” was wrong. I just said that I wish more modern bibles said in the “person of Christ”. Not saying all but some.
 
I don’t know from Protestant or Catholic- I also use A Tanakh in my studies.I shouldn’t use it because it is a"jewish " translation? Most modern translations have a broad board of experts in ancient texts- some which did not even exist at the time of the Vulgate or The DR. Any one with an honest and solid faith would not look to create a Protestant or Catholic translation- but the ‘truest’ and most accurate translation. If we believe that we have the ‘fullness of truth’ then the truest translation is what we should want.- thank God our pontiffs feel the same way.the Rsv And RSV-CE are not that different. usually biggest difference will be in the notes.As to translations- any ancient text(modern for that matter) is difficult. Given the distance in time and place makes it really difficult.My son translates Spanish ,Chinese & Italian to English and visa- versa. No easy task there are things that don’t translate, or don’t translate well or are so idiomatic as to be untranslatable. That occurs in any language but in ancient Greece and Hebrew it becomes even more difficult. Several translations of words or phrases can be just as valid as those used in AV, DR,or Vulgate.Just because it isn’t what we’ve grown up with doesn’t negate the fact that it can be solidly based in philology and linguistics.
 
The Vulgate perfectly fine and acceptable to people for 900 years before a version of the Bible was put in English. Most of the earlier translations in English were viewed as unacceptable because of the authors wanting to rebel against the Catholic Church and make changes that they seen necessary to benefit there doctrine and not the Catholic Doctrine. William Tyndale was one of those translator’s who tried to go beyond the Church’s authority. Subsequently he was burned at the stake for his rebellion against the Church and his version of the NT (Tyndale NT). As the title suggest. The OP wanted the bestCATHOLIC Bible version. The RSV is a Protestant translation and the RSV-CE is based off of that with the exception of the deutrocanonical books. So otherwise it is Protestant and has Protestant views. If there were no other denominations other than the Catholic, there would be no need for Catholic and Protestant translations. They would be just translations and they all would be based off of the Vulgate and not these “so called” better and more accurate texts. I want proof of these texts. No one has even given me any proof in any form. Jerry-Jet also as requested proof these texts. What are the names of these texts??? I bet you can’t answer that for me
 
The Vulgate perfectly fine and acceptable to people for 900 years before a version of the Bible was put in English. Most of the earlier translations in English were viewed as unacceptable because of the authors wanting to rebel against the Catholic Church and make changes that they seen necessary to benefit there doctrine and not the Catholic Doctrine. William Tyndale was one of those translator’s who tried to go beyond the Church’s authority. Subsequently he was burned at the stake for his rebellion against the Church and his version of the NT (Tyndale NT). As the title suggest. The OP wanted the bestCATHOLIC Bible version. The RSV is a Protestant translation and the RSV-CE is based off of that with the exception of the deutrocanonical books. So otherwise it is Protestant and has Protestant views. If there were no other denominations other than the Catholic, there would be no need for Catholic and Protestant translations. They would be just translations and they all would be based off of the Vulgate and not these “so called” better and more accurate texts. I want proof of these texts. No one has even given me any proof in any form. Jerry-Jet also as requested proof these texts. What are the names of these texts??? I bet you can’t answer that for me
I have that list. Are you sure you want it? It’s a very long one, covering several thousand manuscripts.

But before we go through all that trouble, let me ask again, as on two other threads.

The Catholic Church says the original language manuscripts are accurate. The Catholic Church commands biblical scholars to use them.

So again. Why do you oppose the Catholic Church?
 
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