B
Bohm_Bawerk
Guest
I just finished reading an article about a carpenter who accidentally sawed off his thumb. Thanks to modern science, surgeons were able to graft his toe onto his hand. The carpenter - fortunately - will be able to carry on with his livelihood.
The thought occurred to me of the age-old question of “why doesn’t God heal amputees”? The common, universal response I’ve seen to this question is that it “infringes upon the free will of nonbelievers”. But this makes no theological sense, and seems even against Church teaching if I have understood it properly.
The Church teaches that faith is a theological virtue. In other words, faith is a virtue that comes only from God’s grace. A person can not “develop” faith; faith is construed to be a gift from God. Therefore, even if a person witnessed the greatest miracles, it doesn’t necessarily follow they will have faith in God. Of which must mean that witnessing a great miracle doesn’t infringe upon the free will of a nonbeliever - the nonbeliever will still not believe.
This begs the question of why there is no recorded case of an amputee that has been healed in the modern era. I’m sure there are amputees who have prayed to God for him to physically heal them. I’m not accepting “God answers prayers, but not in the way we expect” because I’m sure that there would at least be one recorded amputee being healed in modern history, even if it means many others will have to make do with emotional healing.
It’s also important to take into consideration that the amputee is not testing God. The amputee desperately wants his/her situation to be resolved, and has placed his trust that God will answer the prayer favourably.
What’s a better theological response? Serious answers only please.
The thought occurred to me of the age-old question of “why doesn’t God heal amputees”? The common, universal response I’ve seen to this question is that it “infringes upon the free will of nonbelievers”. But this makes no theological sense, and seems even against Church teaching if I have understood it properly.
The Church teaches that faith is a theological virtue. In other words, faith is a virtue that comes only from God’s grace. A person can not “develop” faith; faith is construed to be a gift from God. Therefore, even if a person witnessed the greatest miracles, it doesn’t necessarily follow they will have faith in God. Of which must mean that witnessing a great miracle doesn’t infringe upon the free will of a nonbeliever - the nonbeliever will still not believe.
This begs the question of why there is no recorded case of an amputee that has been healed in the modern era. I’m sure there are amputees who have prayed to God for him to physically heal them. I’m not accepting “God answers prayers, but not in the way we expect” because I’m sure that there would at least be one recorded amputee being healed in modern history, even if it means many others will have to make do with emotional healing.
It’s also important to take into consideration that the amputee is not testing God. The amputee desperately wants his/her situation to be resolved, and has placed his trust that God will answer the prayer favourably.
What’s a better theological response? Serious answers only please.