U
uglygal
Guest
I have heard it said that the Bible and the Catechism is of equal import to Catholics. I also know from experience that when asking about catholicism I am told “read the catechism” as opposed to “read the Bible”
The Catholic Catechism was first compiled in 1566 and later re-written in the Vatican II period (assuming my research is correct). This is some 1500 (1566) years after Jesus lived. Of contextual interest, the reformation and its activities began in 1517, therefore it appears the catechism was reactionary.
My question is - What is, if any, the import or consequence of such a substantial time difference between the faiths origin and the compilation of the catechism and its context?
Why is the Bible and catechism of “equal” authority to catholics?
I would appreciate both catholic and non-catholic (other christian denominations) perspectives/answers.
You must excuse all my questions as of late but I am investigating. Thankyou in advance for your time and (name removed by moderator)ut.
The Catholic Catechism was first compiled in 1566 and later re-written in the Vatican II period (assuming my research is correct). This is some 1500 (1566) years after Jesus lived. Of contextual interest, the reformation and its activities began in 1517, therefore it appears the catechism was reactionary.
My question is - What is, if any, the import or consequence of such a substantial time difference between the faiths origin and the compilation of the catechism and its context?
Why is the Bible and catechism of “equal” authority to catholics?
I would appreciate both catholic and non-catholic (other christian denominations) perspectives/answers.
You must excuse all my questions as of late but I am investigating. Thankyou in advance for your time and (name removed by moderator)ut.