No, there is not. There are what appear to be ‘contradictions’, that can reasonably be explained. There are several sites online that I have since been unable to find that totally refute the claims against the sacred scripture.There are contradictions in the Bible, so what? That is why we got theology.
Yes, there are.No, there is not.
I would encourage a little better understanding of what the Church actually teaches rather than references to random websites. For starters I would recommend:The Catholic Church teaches that Sacred Scripture is the infallible and inerrant word of God. Vatican I also declared that all those things in the written word of God must be believed with divine and Catholic Faith.
It is a much more complex issue than you imply. Taking it seriously requires knowledge and study - see the above references.I asked this question to people on here who take the Word of God seriously, not people who totally disregard it.
Interesting. Could you give a few examples?Yes, there are.
Matthew** 27:**
44 In the same way the robbers who were crucified with him also heaped insults on him.
www.biblegateway.comLuke 23:
39 One of the criminals who hung there hurled insults at him: “Aren’t you the Christ? Save yourself and us!”
40 But the other criminal rebuked him. “Don’t you fear God,” he said, “since you are under the same sentence?
41 We are punished justly, for we are getting what our deeds deserve. But this man has done nothing wrong.”
42 Then he said, “Jesus, remember me when you come into your kingdom.[a]”
43 Jesus answered him, “I tell you the truth, today you will be with me in paradise.”
The typical solution, and perhaps the only one that can be thought of, is that both ridiculed Him at first, but then the one was later convicted and repented while the other continued with the insults.How come one Gospel says that both criminals insulted the Lord, but the other Gospel doesn’t? In fact, in Luke Jesus promises eternal life to one of the criminals who repents.
The simplistic answer is that each of the gospel writers had various written and oral information at hand in assembling their gospel. Each also had a very distinctive audience and a very distinctive take on what had happened and a view of what it meant. Differences between gospels among different evangelists is largely due to their different interests in including the various stories. Each emphasized different attributes. Each saw Jesus somewhat differently. I think you will find if you study a serious exegesis of any gospel an explanation most of the times along these lines.Something that Ive wondered about in the passion narratives is the following:
www.biblegateway.com
How come one Gospel says that both criminals insulted the Lord, but the other Gospel doesn’t? In fact, in Luke Jesus promises eternal life to one of the criminals who repents.
then why do top biblical scholars say there are contradictions and errors?Anything that has been claimed as a contradiction has been properly refuted and proven false.
So the bible is only inspired spiritually, but not historically or scientifically? How can this be so?it is infallible when it comes to faith and morals (huh, where have i heard that before…). we must remember that the men who wrote the books were not historians nor scientists. they were attempting to communicate truths about God. they got those right. some of the stories might not line up, but the overall picture of God is inerrant and infallible. if your faith is built on the bible being 100% historically and scientifically accurate, you are in trouble. now, this is not to say that there isn’t valuable history or natural understanding of the world contained in the bible, but it is not always (nor was it meant to be) correct historically or scientifically. spiritually, it is always correct.
I’ve read that this prophecy could have alluded to Judges 13:5-7.when they say Jesus was from nazareth to fulfill the prophecy that he will be a “nazarene”, the verse that comes from says nothing even close to that.
How can it not be? - it was written by humans to convey the truths of revelation using the using the knowledge and world-view of the time. The Dogmatic Constitution on Divine Revelation (Dei Verbum) clearly states this.So the bible is only inspired spiritually, but not historically or scientifically? How can this be so?
Through faith. Again, Dei Verbum states "…without error that truth which God wanted put into sacred writings for the sake of salvation. " Jesus has to do with salvation; science, biology, math, history, etc. do not.Either the bible is inspired by the Holy Spirit or it isn’t. If the bible is errant in some aspects, how do we know it is inerrant when speaking about Jesus or the Resurrection?
If John could recieve such a vivid revelation like the Apocalypse, why couldn’t the Holy Spirit have allowed the authors not to commit historical errors? How can the Holy Spirit reveal some truth in a message, but deliberately not guide the authors in other ways?How can it not be? - it was written by humans to convey the truths of revelation using the using the knowledge and world-view of the time. The Dogmatic Constitution on Divine Revelation (Dei Verbum) clearly states this.
Through faith. Again, Dei Verbum states "…without error that truth which God wanted put into sacred writings for the sake of salvation. " Jesus has to do with salvation; science, biology, math, history, etc. do not.