Thanks very much. I am just intrigued by what this could mean as I cannot find a definitive teaching on this verse (though I may be in error here). Peter must have had a reason for writing this and must have had knowledge of Christ’s preaching to the dead, which I have otherwise not read in the Bible.
In the New Jerome Biblical Commentary on 1 Peter 4:6 (p.908, 57:23) this passage is covered thus: “The point of the text is to vindicate those Christians who had accepted the Gospel on earth but who had since died (cf 1 Thess 4:13-18). This text has quite a different theme from that of 3:19”.
1 Thess 4:13-18 is as follows:
“13 But we would not have you ignorant, brethren, concerning those who are asleep, that you may not grieve as others do who have no hope. 14 For since we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so, through Jesus, God will bring with him those who have fallen asleep. 15 For this we declare to you by the word of the Lord, that we who are alive, who are left until the coming of the Lord, shall not precede those who have fallen asleep. 16 For the Lord himself will descend from heaven with a cry of command, with the archangel’s call, and with the sound of the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first; 17 then we who are alive, who are left, shall be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air; and so we shall always be with the Lord. 18 Therefore comfort one another with these words.”
The verse in 3:19 that the NJBC says is different is that Christ “…went and preached to the spirits in prison.”
I just do not think that the NJBC is right on this one. If Peter meant to say that the Gospel was preached to those who have died, then presumably he would have just said that the Gospel was preached to those who are no longer with us - rather than use the phrase “even to the dead” which seems to mean so much more.
Thanks again to any who can help me.