Bible translations

  • Thread starter Thread starter Matthias123
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
M

Matthias123

Guest
How is the Bible translated? Why is there so many different translations of the Bible?

Why aren’t the intentions and the translations of the text so straight forward? Do people disagree with the teaching so they just start changing things?

Is it that a particular word can mean several different things?

Lots of questions :confused:
 
I have translated some of the books of the Bible such as Jonah, Malachi, James, and right now I am working on the Old Greek Version of Daniel. All my translations are from Greek, meaning that I have translated from the Septuagint when I translated from the OT.
How is the Bible translated?
You obviously put one language into another. The Bible was originally written in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek. As far as the OT goes, many translators choose to translate from the Hebrew Masoretic Text. TThe Douay Rheims is a translation of the Latin Vulgate, which is a translation by St. Jerome from the Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek. I prefer the Greek Septuagint myself.

You can take different translation approaches, such as literal, paraphrase, dynamic equivalence (sense for sense), or eclectic and blend each approach. I persoanlly lean toward the literal approach.
Why is there so many different translations of the Bible?
Well, there are many reasons, good and bad. A good reason is that the English language does evolve, and it helps to have an up to date version. The not so good is that translations to sell. Not that profit is bad, but that can be a motivation. Another bad reason is so groups can get the Bible to favor their doctrinal positions. Another good reason is because within the last 100 years there has been great Bible manuscripts that have shed light upon more ancient readings of the Scripture; and manuscript that is 1900 years old is more likely closer to the original than the manuscript that is 600 years old.
Is it that a particular word can mean several different things?
This does not actually cause that much confusion. Those who understand an ancient language understand that certian words can be translated differently, and there are not usually any major divisons that come from that because context will usually help reveal the best word to use.
 
You are there are several translations. If you want a more acurate translation, I recomend the New Jerusalem Bible translation. The easiest to read is the New American Standard bible.
Do not get a paraphrase bible. The king James has some minor errors. If you like Middle English you can buy the Doay-Rheimes.

I am a Linguist and a professional translator

thanks
 
You are there are several translations. If you want a more acurate translation, I recomend the New Jerusalem Bible translation. The easiest to read is the New American Standard bible.
Do not get a paraphrase bible. The king James has some minor errors. If you like Middle English you can buy the Doay-Rheimes.

I am a Linguist and a professional translator

thanks
Hmmm. I thought the original Douay-Rheims and the Challoner revision were in early modern English, not middle English. Isn’t Wycliffe’s Bible the only significant middle English Bible?

Also, isn’t the New American Standard Bible quite literal? I’m confused now 😦 .
 
Hmmm. I thought the original Douay-Rheims and the Challoner revision were in early modern English, not middle English. Isn’t Wycliffe’s Bible the only significant middle English Bible?

Also, isn’t the New American Standard Bible quite literal? I’m confused now 😦 .
Wycliffe’s Bible is in middle English.
The original Douay-Rheims Bible is in early modern English.
The Challoner revision is in modern English.

The NASB is a literal conservative Protestant translation based on the ASV, which in turn is based on the KJV.
bible-researcher.com/nasb.html
 
How is the Bible translated? Why is there so many different translations of the Bible?

Why aren’t the intentions and the translations of the text so straight forward?

Short answer - because language is not straightforward. 🙂 How many people think that “there isn’t room to swing a cat” has something to do with felines ? Jokes & translation may not have much in common, but they do rely on ambiguities of various kinds.​

Do people disagree with the teaching so they just start changing things?

Is it that a particular word can mean several different things?

Lots of questions :confused:

A lot of questions 🙂 People in the US talk about corn - so do we in the UK. But we are not talking about the same crop as people in the US. Which is why the US editions of the RSV were changed in that respect as in some others.​

What is rape ? A farmer & a policeman would probably give different answers - yet each would be perfectly correct, in the different contexts. Again, “yoke” & “yolk” sound identical - but Jesus is not telling His followers to get egg on their faces.

Words have very varied uses, overtones, shades of meaning. There is a story about a computer which translated “out of sight, out of mind” as “invisible idiot”. I have no idea whether this actually happened or not - but it makes the point: language is ambiguous. It’s ambiguous because it is a living thing, used by different groups in different contexts at different times in different places. It is not static. So there is a vast amount of room for misunderstanding & lack of understanding.

Variety of translations is usual - there are at least 183 translations, in part or complete, of Dante’s “Divine Comedy”, in English alone; great classics tend to attact translators 🙂 And the Bible is for the European tradition one of those classics; not just a holy book. It’s important literarily, religiously, as a body of ancient texts, as a record of ideas, & for the uses people have made of it in politics, art, & so on. It’s important to all kinds of readers who may have completely unrelated views about it: dogmatic theologians & historians of mediaeval literature, for example. Because it is so important, a lot of Western culture is incomprehensible without it. As is true of the Classical tradition of Greece & Rome.

If there were anything underhand going on, the Bible is a bad choice of text to translate - why translate in a way which anyone competent to judge could point out in a second ? Which is why grossly inaccurate translations such as the New World Translation of the Jehovah’s Witnesses have been severely criticised for their mistranslations, which seem to coincide with texts important for their doctrines. Whereas the mistranslations in most other versions seem not to have any relation to doctrine. That’s why the NWT is not among mainstream translations, but is usually of interest (if at all) as a curiosity.

Translation is impossible because a single word can have a variety of meanings:
  • Pais can mean both “boy” & “servant” - as in “Thy Holy Pais Jesus”, in Acts. Which is meant - either ? both ?
  • Is the ruach of JHWH the Spirit of JHWH - or the spirit of JHWH ? Capitalisation can be an issue.
    What text is one translating from ? A particular Greek NT - or perhaps from none alone; some translations are eclectic: they choose which ever reading in a given instance seems to recommend itself as that intended. The NEB is eclectic.
How much allowance does one make for the liturgical use of the version ? The requirements of public worship, of academic study, of individual devotion, may not all be possible to satisfy. A text may be much-loved, but poorly supported in the evidence for the reading.

A version which was readily understood when it was made, may in course of time come to be unintelligible - such as parts of older versions such as the AV, or the Challoner revision of the D-R. Some translations are made for learners of English, such as the Good News Bible. So they may leave out technical terms such as atonement, expiation, propitiation, & rephrase what the author is saying.
 
How translate Gen.1.1 ? Does “ruach of E/elohim” mean:
  • S/spirit/breath of God ?
  • mighty wind ?
    And what is the construction in that sentence: a main clause, or a subordinate clause ? Commentators differ, so do translators.
Some translations are more conservative than others - maybe in doctrine, maybe in their relation to a particular tradition of translations, maybe in their treatment of the text. Maybe in all three - or maybe not. The Revised Version conserves as much of the AV as the Revisers were able, consistently with the rules adopted for the Revision; theologically, one of the Revisers was a Unitarian. (Which caused some fuss at the time.) As it’s a rather close version, it has been used by theology
students, though it never became as popular as the AV: it tends to fall between two stools.

The NAB has a rather interesting translation of Genesis 10.10:
  • ASV
    10 And the beginning of his kingdom was Babel, and Erech, and Accad, and Calneh, **in the land of Shinar. **
    biblegateway.com/passage/?book_id=1&chapter=10&version=8
  • NRSV:
    The beginning of his kingdom was Babel, Erech, and Accad, all of them in the land of Shinar.
    hope.edu/bandstra/BIBLE/GEN/GEN10.HTM
  • DR-Challoner:
    And the beginning of his kingdom was Babylon, and Arach, and Achad, and Chalanne in the land of Sennaar.
    biblegateway.com/passage/?book_id=1&chapter=10&version=63
  • NAB
    The chief cities of his kingdom were Babylon, Erech, and Accad, all of them in the land of Shinar.
    usccb.org/nab/bible/genesis/genesis10.htm
    The Hebrew has been re-vocalised in NAB & NRSV, to read kullanah. The suggestion that it should be read as kullanah was made in 1955 IIRC; it has the advantage of not referring to a city, Calneh, of which there is no evidence in that part of Babylonia, apart from that reading. This kind of operation is usual, especially when the text as it stands is probably or certainly corrupt. The NEB has a great many notes in its OT marked “probable reading” - it is not as conservative with the text as the RSV, say. (The NAB has no note on its adoption of a revocalised text in this verse, which is a pity IMO.)
As to “chief cities”/“beginning” - it depends on how rosh as in “Rosh HaShanah”, “Head/Beginning of the Year” is understood. “Headwaters” in UK English is a similar expression.

In Psalm 23.1, is there a reference to God as King [of Israel] (kings were regarded as shepherds); or a straightforward pastoral image without such an overtone ?

To find out about NT textual criticism (& more), see the book by the late Bruce Metzger:
Hope that helps :o
 
You are there are several translations. If you want a more acurate translation, I recomend the New Jerusalem Bible translation. The easiest to read is the New American Standard bible.
Do not get a paraphrase bible. The king James has some minor errors. If you like Middle English you can buy the Doay-Rheimes.

I am a Linguist and a professional translator

thanks
Actually the worst of the bunch is the New American Bible from the USCCB. The translation is not very good, and it is not very readable if you have to proclaim the readings. What they have done to St. Paul’s epistles is pretty bad. Meh sds, you are a lingust, as you described yourself. There is a degree of difficulty in reading St. Paul’s epistles during Mass (based on the RNAB) because the sentences are very long and border on running. More often than not, I have to grab my RSV-CE 2nd edition to know when to make the breaks so that way I won’t read the lengthy portions like run-on sentences.

I much prefer the RSV-CE 2nd edition to any version of the NAB and I especially treasure the Douay-Rheims Bible that my grandma left me. My grandmother may have not been the most educated woman in the world, but, she really enjoyed reading her D-R. I know because it is dog-eared and several sections were marked off with old bulletins because she would read her Bible every day.
 
[Well the basic answer is that language is an amazing form of communication and it is a changing, ever changing thing.

So in order to do a translation, one relies on one’s skill in understanding the original, and one’s skill in the target language. Both are moving targets.

For example you could say you have an English translation, but note that English of the 1500’s would be much different than today’s English and indeed English in Australia would vary from English in the US. Indeed English of the infamous “Valley girls” varies greatly from English in say, Harlem.

Language can be quite confusing if you just take them literally, they don’t make sense. So the translator could translate them literally and leave the reader to figure it out, or use a similar saying to transmit as much at they can reasonably do.

We see an example of that where I think every translation I can think of is a paraphrase.
Isa 14:12 DRB
(12) How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, who didst rise in the morning? how art thou fallen to the earth, that didst wound the nations?
That is not a literal translation at all, the text actually says “Helel son of Shachar” not Lucifer (a name for the planet Venus, the morning star.) Now if Helel son of Shachar doesn’t mean anything to you, welcome to the club! We think this is a reference to the morning star in Canaanite mythology. Now a reason I used this is because while Lucifer would have been understood at the time as a reference to the planet Venus, it now is commonly used as a word for Satan. So you see modern translations changing it to a different paraphrase to avoid confusing the reader. From the NAB

12 How have you fallen from the heavens, O morning star, son of the dawn! How are you cut down to the ground, you who mowed down the nations!
A more specific example of linguistic study would be usage of the word unicorn. If you find someone who insists Christ was hung on a stake and not a cross it goes right to that word. Psa 92:10 DRB
(10) (92:11) But my horn shall be exalted like that of the unicorn: and my old age in plentiful mercy.

Now again language has changed, people tend to first think of the mythical horse with one horn, but when this was written it was intending it to be the single horn rhinocerous. The reference to the single horn actually goes all the way back to the Septuagint. People did not know the animal so they followed previous translations that they could understand the word. Now study has shown that it is a reference to an extinct oxen. And so the horns of the oxen now again give us the correct vision which is bascically a “T” instead of an “I”. And so we see again the advance in linguistics as
Psa 92:10 ESV
(10) But you have exalted my horn like that of the wild ox; you have poured over me fresh oil.
So anyway, there is the need for various translations as scholarship changes and as the language changes.

We also have the worldly reasons. If you are a publisher. It is a very handy thing to own the rights to a translation.

And then you sometimes get translations done in reaction to another. For instance the major push for the HCSB seem to be a reaction to the gender neutrality of TNIV going what they felt was too far.
So that’s some of the reasons for the many translations. I don’t know of a translation that doesn’t “miss” a few verses based of course on how I would read them. That doesn’t mean they are wrong actually, often it’s just a matter of my English versus the target English. And I have to admit too, that more than once, what I use to judge them is my understanding based on an older translation. And it’s very possible the older translation is the one that’s off, or at least the way I understood it.

Probably the greatest linguistic debate at this time is the Greek word monogenes. Translated “only begotten” in verses like John 3:16. Now it’s pretty clear to me that is a mistake. Why? Let’s take another place where it is used.
Heb 11:17 DRB
(17) By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son,
See the problem? Isaac was clearly not Abraham’s only begotten son. Remember Ishmael? What he was was the only son of the promise, one of a kind, unique. And so we see newer translations moving in that direction. Many have tried using only, which creates problems of it’s own, because Isaac wasn’t Abraham’s only son either. The ISV has gone to trying to use unique which I think is really very good. But the uproar is so loud they are seriously considering changing back. It’s get’s mixed up in things like Creeds and Commentaries and so on. For instance if you translate monogenes as unique or one of a kind, the begatting of Jesus before all time disappears from the Bible. It would say he always was but speak nothing of how he always was. That would be fine with me because the Creed that use begatting, then instantly try to correct the misunderstanding that naturally results as Jesus was not made. But groups such as the Jehovah’s Witnesses, and Mormons and such look and say, begotten, hmm I guess that makes Jesus a created being. And actually on what the word begotten would mean, they are right. But it’s the mistranslation that takes you there. Of course if you try to understand all this, someone while rather quickly condemn you for being some sort of heretic.

JJ
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top