Biblical Basis for Mary's Perpetual Virginity

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goarch.org/en/ourfaith/ar…rticle9174.asp

Look at it from another view. Or at least it’s pretty much the same view from the Orthodox perspective. It’s worth the read. The problem with bible Christians is that they just don’t know their bibles. Must be reading the KJV in the original english founded on the take of Pentacost… I believe this is the tounges they are referring too, ya think?

PLEASE read this article. If you’ve ever had a question about Perpetual Virginity, this will make a lot of sense. I held to this even as a Protestant.

Think of it this way. If this wasn’t true, then why didn’t the early Catholic leaders strike it the mention of so called Jesus’ brothers and sisters… This is an example of not knowing scripture and tradition.
 
Jesus “Brothers”
by Mark J. Bonocore

I COULDN’T DEBUNK THIS ARTICLE —In the past few years, I’ve been amazed by the growing number of Christians who have renounced the traditional belief in Mary’s perpetual virginity, citing as reason the “brothers” and “sisters” of the Lord referred to in Sacred Scripture.
Now, while many Protestants regard Mary’s perpetual virginity as a uniquely “Catholic belief,” it should be noted that the Protestant reformers Luther, Calvin, and Zwingli ALL professed this belief as well (for documentation, see for example Mary, Mother of All Christians by Max Thurian, written while he was a Calvinist theologian).
So, while I myself am a Catholic, I present this argument ecumenically using Scripture alone, to prove that these “brothers” and “sisters” are NOT the children of Joseph and Mary, and that the belief in Mary’s perpetual virginity is in no way refuted by the New Testament. So, let us begin in Matthew.
Matthew 13:55 – Jesus at Nazareth
– carpenter’s son
– mother named Mary
– brothers: James, Joseph, Simon, and Judas
– sisters “with us”
Matthew 27: 55 – The Crucifixion
“Among them were Mary Magdalene and MARY THE MOTHER OF JAMES AND JOSEPH, and the mother of the sons of Zebedee.”

This “Mary” is obviously the mother of the same James and Joseph mentioned in Matt 13:55.
Matthew 28: 1 – The Resurrection
“After the sabbath, as the first day of the week was dawning, Mary Magdalene and THE OTHER MARY came to see the tomb.”
This “other Mary” certainly corresponds to the mother of James and Joseph, the companion of Mary Magdalene in Matt 27:55. However, she is presented as such a minor gospel character that she is apparently NOT the mother of Jesus.
It’s interesting to note that whenever Matthew mentions the Virgin Mary, he always identifies her as “Jesus’ mother.” (See: Matt 1:18, 2:11, 2:13, 2:14, 2:20, and 2:21, in which the author all but beats us over the head with the phrase “His mother.”) It’s unlikely, therefore, that Matthew is abandoning this point by later identifying her as merely the mother of James and Joseph: a secondary character, less important than Mary Magdalene. Taking all this into consideration, Mary the mother of James and Joseph and Jesus’ mother are apparently two different women. But first, let’s turn to Mark.
Mark 6:3 – Jesus at Nazareth (possibly the original source)
– “Is he not the carpenter?” (Jesus had taken over the family business)
– “The son of Mary” (Very unusual in a Jewish context, in which a son is the son of the father, not the mother)
– brothers James, JOSE, Judas, and Simon
The same list as in Matt 13:55, with the exception of “Jose” in place of Matthew’s Joseph – really the same name in Hebrew (Yoshef).
– “sisters are here with us”
Both in Matthew’s account, and more clearly here in Mark’s, this phrase seems to suggest that these particular “brothers” of Jesus lived elsewhere. (Could they have been traveling with Jesus as His followers?)
Mark 15:40 – The Crucifixion
“Among them were Mary Magdalene, MARY THE MOTHER OF THE YOUNGER JAMES AND OF JOSE, and Salome.”
Here, Matthew’s “Mary the mother of James and Joseph” reappears as “the mother of …James and of Jose,” corresponding to Mark’s reference to Jesus’ “brothers” James and Jose at Nazareth in 6:3. If one compares Matthew and Mark’s accounts of Jesus at Nazareth with that of their accounts of the crucifixion, it becomes abundantly clear that they are speaking about the same two relatives of Jesus, whose mother – like Jesus’ – happened to be named Mary:
NAZARETH CRUCIFIXION
Matthew: James and Joseph James and Joseph
Mark: James and Jose James and Jose
And so, Mark continues…
Mark 15:47 – Jesus’ burial
“Mary Magdalene and MARY THE MOTHER OF JOSE watched where He was laid.”
Jose corresponds to the one mentioned in Mark 6:3 and 15:40.
Mark 16:1 – The Resurrection
“When the Sabbath was over, Mary Magdalene, MARY THE MOTHER OF JAMES, and Salome bought spices so that they might go and anoint Him.”
The same three companions appear again. Here, Mary is called “the mother of James” (a variant of “the mother of Jose” in 15:47). However, there is still no mention, or even a vague implication, that this woman is also the mother of Jesus; but merely a background character like Salome.
Luke 24:10 – The Resurrection
“The women were Mary Magdalene, Joanna, and MARY THE MOTHER OF JAMES; the others who accompanied them also …”
Again, the “mother of James,” but not the mother of Jesus. And, like Matthew and Mark (in 3:35), the author of Luke always refers to the Virgin Mary as Jesus’ mother (See: Luke 1:43, 2:33-34, 2:51, 8:19, Acts 1:14).
“Others” (aka, Salome and Suzanna, etc.)
John 19:25 – The Crucifixion
“Standing by the cross of Jesus were His mother and HIS MOTHER’S SISTER, MARY THE WIFE OF CLOPAS, and Mary Magdala.”
This mysterious “Mary” appears again; this time called “Mary the wife of Clopas.” If this passage is speaking about three women, rather than four (as it almost certainly is), the comma after “his mother’s sister” may be identifying Clopas’ wife as the sister (or ‘tribal-relative’) of Jesus’ mother. This would explain the gospel writers’ use of the Greek word “adelphos” (as a translation of the Hebrew “ah”), which could mean brother (or sister in the feminine), as well as cousin, nephew, relative, etc. If Clopas’ wife was the sister (i.e., close, tribal relative) of Jesus’ mother, then Clopas’ sons, James and Joseph (Jose), could very well be called Jesus’ “brethren” (i.e., part of His extended tribal family).
This seems to fit, since neither James and Joseph/Jose (nor any of the “brothers”) are EVER called the sons of Joseph.
It is also quite possible that, as John’s gospel so often does, this reference to Mary as “wife of Clopas” is a conscious intention to clear up any questions about the “mother of James and Joseph (Jose)” in the Synoptics – that is, to clearly distinguish her from Jesus’ mother.
CONCLUSION
So, with all this evidence in mind, I hold that:
(1) John’s “Mary the wife of Clopas ” is the same person as the Synoptics’ “Mary the mother of James and Joseph/Jose” (the Mary of the cross/tomb accounts).
(2) This Mary is in turn the “sister” (i.e., close tribal relative) of Jesus’ mother Mary.
(3) This is how Jesus is “brothers” with James and Joseph (Jose).
(4) His other “brothers” (Judas and Simon), as well as his “sisters,” and the “brothers” who don’t believe in Him in John 7:5 are from other branches of His extended tribal family.
But, let’s play devil’s advocate.
If James, Joseph (Jose), Simon, and Judas ARE INDEED Jesus’ fraternal brothers, then the Synoptics’ Mary of the cross/tomb (i.e., the mother of James and Joseph/Jose) MUST be Jesus’ mother as well.
And, after all, there ARE certain seemingly-logical arguments to support this:
– James and Joseph (Jose) ARE called Jesus’ brothers.
– And, their mother IS named Mary (the same as Jesus’)
– And, one must admit, it’s also possible that the comma between “His mother’s sister” and “Mary the wife of Clopas” in John 19:25 may be distinguishing two different women instead of identifying Clopas’ wife as the Virgin Mary’s sister.
So, therefore, Mary the wife of Clopas may NOT be a relative at all NOR is she necessarily the same woman as “Mary the mother of James and Joseph/Jose” in the Synoptics.
So, can “Mary the mother of James and Joseph/Jose” be Jesus’ mother as well?
Well, if this is the case, then
(A) Why is she never called the mother of Jesus in the cross/tomb accounts? (Wouldn’t that be easier than constantly “switching” between James and Jose?)
(B) Why is she never called the mother of the other brothers, Simon and Judas?
(C) Why isn’t she simply called the wife of Joseph?
(D) Why is she always listed second (and in Luke, third) after Mary Magdalene?
(E) Why does Matthew refer to her as merely “the other Mary” in 28:1?
(F) Why does John cite a second Mary at the cross: Mary the wife of Clopas? (A character who doesn’t appear in the Synoptics, unless she’s the mother of James and Joseph.)
(G) If John is calling his “Mary the wife of Clopas” the virgin Mary’s sister, how can the word “adelphos” (or “adelphe” in the feminine) be taken literally? Two sisters both named Mary?!
It therefore must be admitted that, if “Mary the mother of James and Joseph/Jose” and Jesus’ mother are one and the same, then
– The three Synoptics (Matthew, Mark, and Luke) are INTENTIONALLY neglecting to call her Jesus’ mother in their cross/tomb accounts (as if she’s not Jesus’ mother anymore.)
– The Synoptics are also INTENTIONALLY depicting her as a minor character, less important than Mary Magdalene. And, in the case of Matthew, she’s reduced to merely “the other Mary” in 28:1.
Still playing devil’s advocate, I can imagine only one reason why the Synoptics would “demote” Jesus’ mother like this; since ALL THREE refer to her as “his mother” earlier in their Gospels. Perhaps, as some have argued, the Synoptics are UNDERLINING their accounts in Matt 12:46, Mark 3:35, and Luke 8:19-21, in which Jesus refuses to go out to meet His mother and brothers, but tells His disciples, “Whoever does the will of God is my brother, and sister, and mother.” Perhaps they’re making a “theological point” by calling her only “the mother of James and Joseph/Jose” in their later, cross/tomb accounts.
Well, although quite flimsy to begin with, this possibility is totally shattered, when one considers that in Acts 1:14 she is again called “the mother of Jesus.” Since Acts is the companion volume to Luke (produced by the same author), it doesn’t make much sense for Luke to call her “Mary the mother of James” in 24:10, and then re-bestow the title “mother of Jesus” in Acts 1:14 if he’s trying to make such a “theological point”.
Therefore, my whole “devil’s advocate” position is undone, and it is proved conclusively that the Synoptics’ “Mary the mother of James and Joseph/Jose” is NOT Jesus’ mother.
And, since this Mary is certainly the mother of the same James and Joseph/Jose who are also called Jesus’ “brothers,” then it’s equally proven that they COULD NOT have been the Lord’s brothers in a fraternal sense.
So, who are these “brothers” of Jesus? I hold that the term “brothers” refers to His entire tribal group: the boys He grew up with, and with whom He was somehow related.
But if these men were “cousins” or “blood relatives,” some argue, why not simply use the word “kinsman” or “relative” as found in Luke 1:36? e.g. in which Elizabeth is described as Mary’s “relative.”
I answer this quite simply. First of all, I claim that His “brothers” and “sisters” were members of His extended family WITH WHOM JESUS WAS RAISED. Elizabeth’s son, John the Baptist, on the other hand, would not have been referred to in this sense, because Jesus was not raised with him, although they were of the same blood.
Also, I argue that the term “brother” is used in the Gospels because these particular men were known BY THIS TITLE in the early Church. I give you: 1 Corinthians 9:4-5, in which Paul is defending his right to be called an apostle:
“Do we not have the right to take along a Christian wife, as do the rest of the apostles, AND THE BROTHERS OF THE LORD, and Kephas (i.e., Peter)?”
Since Paul is writing to Corinthians: citizens of a city in far off Greece, it is obvious that the distinguishing TITLE of “brother” was well known to the universal Church, a Church which also knew very well what the title meant.
Conversely, if we take the term “adelphos” literally, that would mean that Joseph and Mary had a total of five sons and at least two daughters. This would make a total of seven children: in essence, a “Biblical Brady Bunch.” 🙂 Now considering that Joseph’s profession was that of a carpenter; and not that of a shepherd or farmer, in which large families are encouraged to work the land or tend the flocks, it seems rather ridiculous that he could have supported a family of this size, living in a small, most likely mud brick house in a little place like Nazareth.
Also, even assuming (as the early Church writers Clement and Origen did) that Jesus’ “brothers” were the children of Joseph by a wife previous to Mary, Mark 6:3 clearly refers to Jesus as “the carpenter.” Since the family profession was passed on from father to son, how many carpenters could a little town like Nazareth support? Certainly not five!
However, if the term “brothers” refers instead to Jesus’ extended tribal-family group (as I believe I’ve shown it does), we are left with the image of five young boys (among others) playing in the streets of Nazareth:
JESUS: the son of Joseph and Mary
JAMES: and his sibling JOSEPH (or Jose): the sons of Clopas and Mary.
JUDAS
SIMON
These were the Lord’s childhood friends, with whom He grew to manhood; and given the scope of first century village life, with whom He was almost certainly related.👍
 
goarch.org/en/ourfaith/ar…rticle9174.asp

Look at it from another view. Or at least it’s pretty much the same view from the Orthodox perspective. It’s worth the read. The problem with bible Christians is that they just don’t know their bibles. Must be reading the KJV in the original english founded on the take of Pentacost… I believe this is the tounges they are referring too, ya think?

PLEASE read this article. If you’ve ever had a question about Perpetual Virginity, this will make a lot of sense. I held to this even as a Protestant.

Think of it this way. If this wasn’t true, then why didn’t the early Catholic leaders strike it the mention of so called Jesus’ brothers and sisters… This is an example of not knowing scripture and tradition.
Great article…
Excerpt…

"To argue against Mary’s perpetual virginity is to suggest something else that is greatly implausible, not to say unthinkable: that neither Mary nor her protector, Joseph, would have deemed it inappropriate to have sexual relations after the birth of God in the flesh. Leaving aside for a moment the complete uniqueness of the Incarnation of the Second Person of the Trinity, recall that it was the practice for devout Jews in the ancient world to refrain from sexual activity following any great manifestation of the Holy Spirit…

…Mary became the vessel for the Lord of Glory Himself, and bore in the flesh Him whom heaven and earth cannot contain. Would this not have been grounds to consider her life, including her body, as consecrated to God and God alone? Or it more plausible that she would shrug it all off and get on with keeping house in the usual fashion? Consider that the poetically parallel incident of the Lord’s entry through the east gate of the Temple (in Ezekiel 43—44) prompts the call: “This gate shall be shut; it shall not be opened, and no one shall enter by it, for the Lord God of Israel has entered by it; therefore it shall be shut” (44:2). 👍 👍 👍
 
I accept what the Church teaches about Mary being Ever Virgin, but it was not necessary nor do the scriptures speak to it one way or another.
 
I accept what the Church teaches about Mary being Ever Virgin, but it was not necessary nor do the scriptures speak to it one way or another.
However the bible alone proves that Jesus did not have brothers ans sisters, which supports the Blessed Mary being Ever Virgin.; I, like you also accept what the Church teaches about Mary being Ever Virgin, but most protestant do not.
 
However the bible alone proves that Jesus did not have brothers ans sisters, which supports the Blessed Mary being Ever Virgin.; I, like you also accept what the Church teaches about Mary being Ever Virgin, but most protestant do not.
Please tell me how the Bible alone proves this?
 
Joe’s post (#3) notes, quite correctly, that every so-called ‘brother of the Lord’ was not a uterine brother. . .not a child of Mary. As far as ‘sisters’ go, not a one was given a name, and the use of the term ‘sister’ is likewise not a proof of ‘uterine’ sisterhood, so again there is absolutely no Biblical indication of there EVER being a uterine brother or sister of Jesus.

Even the FIRST Protestant leaders (Calvin, Luther, Zwingli) found, from SCRIPTURE, that Mary was a perpetual virgin.

Only certain cherrypicking Protestants leapt at verses out of context.

After 1600 years! Look here! The BIBLE SAYS, “Brother of the Lord!” That means ‘brother’, has to be another son of Mary and Joseph! That means she didn’t stay a virgin! Take THAT, Catholic Church! (Oh, and Orthodox too, but we figure you’re almost as good as us other Protestants cause you disagree with Catholics. . .and the enemy of my enemy is my friend).

And so WHAT if Scripture shows that brother of the Lord was really son of somebody other than Joseph and Mary. Gol dang it, BROTHER MEANS BROTHER. Don’t try to confuse me with facts!
 
Joe’s post (#3) notes, quite correctly, that every so-called ‘brother of the Lord’ was not a uterine brother. . .not a child of Mary. As far as ‘sisters’ go, not a one was given a name, and the use of the term ‘sister’ is likewise not a proof of ‘uterine’ sisterhood, so again there is absolutely no Biblical indication of there EVER being a uterine brother or sister of Jesus.
Joe makes assumptions that simply cannot be proven. And just because the sisters were not given names is not proof they were not uterine sisters.
Even the FIRST Protestant leaders (Calvin, Luther, Zwingli) found, from SCRIPTURE, that Mary was a perpetual virgin.
So what’s the point 🤷 RCCs make this claim all the time. That doesn’t mean they are correct. This is such an old argument.
Only certain cherrypicking Protestants leapt at verses out of context.
There’s no need to cherry pick. The evidence is there if you understand the Jewish culture.
After 1600 years! Look here! The BIBLE SAYS, “Brother of the Lord!” That means ‘brother’, has to be another son of Mary and Joseph! That means she didn’t stay a virgin! Take THAT, Catholic Church! (Oh, and Orthodox too, but we figure you’re almost as good as us other Protestants cause you disagree with Catholics. . .and the enemy of my enemy is my friend).
Just because the RCC taught Mary was a perpetual virgin doesn’t mean that it was believed for 1600 years. 2+2=5 could have been taught for 5000 years but that doesn’t make it a fact.
And so WHAT if Scripture shows that brother of the Lord was really son of somebody other than Joseph and Mary. Gol dang it, BROTHER MEANS BROTHER. Don’t try to confuse me with facts!
Ok so brother means brother. Then accept it that it could have been a half brother of Jesus and leave it at that.
 
Simply, AT.

You see, if Mary, being betrothed, was going to have sexual relations with her husband, had been told, “You will have a son”, she would not have said, “How can this be, for I know not a man”?

A woman like Mary expecting to marry and have children would not ask ‘how’? She would, on being told, “you will have a son”, say, “So Joseph and I will have a boy?”

But if she were to have made a vow of virginity, she WOULD say, "How is this possible? Is God saying that I am released from my vow? But Joseph has already agreed and accepted my vow. Does this mean that he will have to change his acceptance too? "

This is the reason Mary asked the question, “How?” And unlike Zechariah, who on being told that his wife Elizabeth would bear a son and who was incredulous and punished by being unable to speak until after the birth, Mary was NOT QUESTIONING GOD’S WILL. She was perfectly willing to be obedient but she did not understand HOW she could have a child when she had sworn a vow of virginity and had it accepted, had been betrothed to a man who would guard her as a virgin and accepted her vow.

It also explains why Joseph, a righteous man, who had accepted Mary’s vow of virginity, would have wanted to divorce her quietly. Not only was Mary’s vow known, he could quite easily (as he later did) ‘kept’ her as his wife. By doing so, both he and she would be held to have FORSWORN their vows. Even though ‘legally’ married, they would have been felt to have sinned against God and they would always have been looked down on, a little bit. That also would explain the townspeople later ‘wondering’ at how 'GOOD" Jesus appeared to be. The 1st century Jewish person, knowing that Jesus ‘appeared’ to be the product of a union that had ‘sinned’ from the first by ‘forswearing a vow’ to God, would have thought Jesus ‘steeped in sin’ from the first. As Scripture tells us, the man born blind was thought to have been ‘blinded’ either through his fault or the FAULT OF HIS PARENTS. . .though Jesus tells us that indeed was not the case.
 
The entire argument hinges on this premise:

If Mary took a vow of sexual abstinence–and her words “How can this be, since I know not man?” in Luke are evidence that she did (Luke 1:34)–

How on earth does that classify as a vow?
It doesn’t because that’s the wrong interpretation of Luke 1:34. The correct interpretation is “How can this be since I have not known a man”. It’s written in the past tense. And the greek word used for man is Ajnhvr which gets transliterated into Aner. Aner is used to refer to a husband. So the proper English translation of that particular verse is “How can this be since I have not had sex with my husband”. There’s no allusion to any vow taken by Mary at all and certainly is not supported by Matthew’s Gospel.
 
Please tell me how the Bible alone proves this?
Well, if you read the article which employs the Bible (sola scriptura the man-made Doctrine of Protestantism) to support its claims (nothing else), and from that same article, were convinced that Jesus didn’t have brothers or sisters by birth (the reputed biblical “brothers and sisters” protestants speak of) , making him an only child, then the bible proves Mary’s perpetual virginity.

Of course you could always come back with something like, hey maybe she had children with some unknown man later on in life, however that would have to be proven using the same benchmark (sola scriptura)

Also I said **I **couldn’t debunk the article nor could my sister, who is an Evangelical minister.

If you can, let me know…👍
 
Simply, AT.

You see, if Mary, being betrothed, was going to have sexual relations with her husband, had been told, “You will have a son”, she would not have said, “How can this be, for I know not a man”?
That’s not what she said. You need to study Greek to know exactly what she said. I replied to this for AgnosTheist but I’ll repeat for you. The greek is written in the past tense using the word Aner for Man which means husband. So the absolute correct translation is “How can this be since I have not had sex with my husband”? There’s no allusion to any vow taken by Mary at all and Matthew does not support it.
A woman like Mary expecting to marry and have children would not ask ‘how’? She would, on being told, “you will have a son”, say, “So Joseph and I will have a boy?”
Again the verse is written in the past tense. Mary was understanding the Angel to mean that she was going to conceive immediately. She wonders how this can be since she and Joseph have not had sex and will not until the take home ceremony after their betrothed period of one year is over.
But if she were to have made a vow of virginity, she WOULD say, "How is this possible? Is God saying that I am released from my vow? But Joseph has already agreed and accepted my vow. Does this mean that he will have to change his acceptance too? "
Mary made no vow and you cannot prove that. Joseph did not accept anything. When Mary is discovered pregnant with Jesus the Gospel of Matthew is not written that she violated any vow to GOD. It’s written that she was betrothed to a righteous man from the house of David and is found with Child before they came together. Matthew’s implication here is that she violated her contract for marriage by commiting adultery against Joseph. Joseph has a few choices at this point. Either to accept the child as his own, have Mary put away which means to divorce her or break the contract of marriage, or he could have pressed charges against her resulting in her being stoned to death. He decides to quietly put her away so he brings no shame to the family.

If Mary had violated a vow taken to the Lord then it would have been out of Joesph’s hands. But this is not how Matthew writes the story.
This is the reason Mary asked the question, “How?” And unlike Zechariah, who on being told that his wife Elizabeth would bear a son and who was incredulous and punished by being unable to speak until after the birth, Mary was NOT QUESTIONING GOD’S WILL. She was perfectly willing to be obedient but she did not understand HOW she could have a child when she had sworn a vow of virginity and had it accepted, had been betrothed to a man who would guard her as a virgin and accepted her vow.
You’re trying to sprinkle in the infancy Gospel of James here which is irrevelant for 2 reasons: 1. It’s not official canon and was never accepted by the early Catholic church and 2. It contradicts Matthew’s Gospel which is cannonical. There’s no Biblical proof whatsoever that Mary took a vow of virginity.
It also explains why Joseph, a righteous man, who had accepted Mary’s vow of virginity, would have wanted to divorce her quietly. Not only was Mary’s vow known, he could quite easily (as he later did) ‘kept’ her as his wife. By doing so, both he and she would be held to have FORSWORN their vows.
Again Joseph accepted nothing as the Gospel is not written that way. Joseph was righteous because he did not press charges which could have resulted in death for Mary, and he was going to divorce her quietly until the Angel told him to proceed with the marriage.
Even though ‘legally’ married, they would have been felt to have sinned against God and they would always have been looked down on, a little bit. That also would explain the townspeople later ‘wondering’ at how 'GOOD" Jesus appeared to be. The 1st century Jewish person, knowing that Jesus ‘appeared’ to be the product of a union that had ‘sinned’ from the first by ‘forswearing a vow’ to God, would have thought Jesus ‘steeped in sin’ from the first. As Scripture tells us, the man born blind was thought to have been ‘blinded’ either through his fault or the FAULT OF HIS PARENTS. . .though Jesus tells us that indeed was not the case.
You’re making up your own interpretations here that are not supported 1 bit by scripture.
 
Well, if you read the article which employs the Bible (sola scriptura the man-made Doctrine of Protestantism) to support its claims (nothing else), and from that same article, were convinced that Jesus didn’t have brothers or sisters by birth (the reputed biblical “brothers and sisters” protestants speak of) , making him an only child, then the bible proves Mary’s perpetual virginity.

Of course you could always come back with something like, hey maybe she had children with some unknown man later on in life, however that would have to be proven using the same benchmark (sola scriptura)

Also I said **I **couldn’t debunk the article nor could my sister, who is an Evangelical minister.

If you can, let me know…👍
It’s not a matter of debunking anything. You can’t prove from scripture that the brothers of Jesus were no one else’s but his half brother’s. You certainly can’t explain where the sisters came from although the Greek used there Adelphoi/Adelphos means from the same womb. Now we both know that they also can be used to refer to brothers as you and I are brothers in Christ even though I don’t think we are related. But when the Greek is written to refer to family and Adelphos/Adelphoi is used there can only be one interpretation. That they are actually family members.

So if I say this is my Adelphos/Adelphoi referring to my brother or sister then it is an actual blood relative. If I say my Adelphos/Adelphoi in Christ, then certainly I’m being general. But in Mark’s Gospel it’s not written this way.
 
It doesn’t because that’s the wrong interpretation of Luke 1:34. The correct interpretation is “How can this be since I have not known a man”. It’s written in the past tense. And the greek word used for man is Ajnhvr which gets transliterated into Aner. Aner is used to refer to a husband. So the proper English translation of that particular verse is “How can this be since I have not had sex with my husband”. There’s no allusion to any vow taken by Mary at all and certainly is not supported by Matthew’s Gospel.
My research proves you are correct. The proof is in the catholic bible itself:

Genesis 4:1
And Adam knew Eve his wife; who conceived and brought forth Cain, saying: I have gotten a man through God.

Genesis 4:25
Adam also knew his wife again: and she brought forth a son, and called his name Seth, saying: God hath given me another seed for Abel, whom Cain slew.

Luke 1:34
And Mary said to the angel: How shall this be done, because I know not man?

“know” and “knew” is the ancient jewish tradition of referring to sex. There is nothing to suggest that mary took a vow.
 
It doesn’t because that’s the wrong interpretation of Luke 1:34. The correct interpretation is “How can this be since I have not known a man”. It’s written in the past tense. And the greek word used for man is Ajnhvr which gets transliterated into Aner. Aner is used to refer to a husband. So the proper English translation of that particular verse is “How can this be since I have not had sex with my husband”. There’s no allusion to any vow taken by Mary at all and certainly is not supported by Matthew’s Gospel.
Luke 1:30-35 (New International Version)

"And the angel said unto her, Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favour with God. And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS. He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David: And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end. **“How will this be,” Mary asked the angel, “since I am a virgin?” **

**At this point, I am quite sure Mary knows how to make a baby with Joseph in the near future, making this question ridiculous, unless, (a) her obstetrician said she was barren, not able to bear children or (b) she had taken a vow of celibacy. I think I’ll opt for (b), it seems to make the most sense. If she wasn’t planning to take on a life long vow of celibacy, her normal response would be something like, yeah I know, I am married to Joseph and we are planning to have a family, thank you so much for this Divinely, marvellous news; don’t you think? **

The angel answered, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called[a] the Son of God.

**Here she finds out that her vow of life long celibacy can still remain intact, since no seed of a mere man is required. **It’s is a gift from God! If you had the chance to create your mother, wouldn’t you make her sinless?" If you were Joseph, knowing that God chose your wife to bring God into this world, wouldn’t you view your wife as the most unique, inimitable vessel in all of history, and perhaps shy away from your normal husbandry duties? REALLY, think about it for a minute.
 
My research proves you are correct. The proof is in the catholic bible itself:Genesis 4:1
And Adam knew Eve his wife; who conceived and brought forth Cain, saying: I have gotten a man through God.

Genesis 4:25
Adam also knew his wife again: and she brought forth a son, and called his name Seth, saying: God hath given me another seed for Abel, whom Cain slew.

Luke 1:34
And Mary said to the angel: How shall this be done, because I know not man?“know” and “knew” is the ancient jewish tradition of referring to sex. There is nothing to suggest that mary took a vow.
Except common sense. This question makes absoutely no sense if she ever intented on intercourse in her life.
 
Except common sense. This question makes absoutely no sense if she ever intented on intercourse in her life.
The question is valid because she wasnt married.

Common sense suggests that young people dont think much about the future. And mary was very young. Around 14?

Common sense asks, WHY THE HELL would Mary take such an alleged vow before realizing what was happening??? :eek:

You folks are trying to force your interpretation into it. Mary did not take a vow according to that verse.
 
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