H
Hodos
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No, the idea the John and Pau and Jesus accept the creation narrative as a true account and normative for their theology however, is the point. And as we have seen in Romans, Paul (as first century Judaism taught) accepts that death was introduced as the result of the sin of Adam. Again, this implies that when the creation account says In the beginning God created…and spoke things into existence on a given day, and there was morning and there was evening and there was morning the first (second, third, fourth, fifth, sixth) day, they accepted that as normative for their understanding of creation. Again, you are going to need to find something that demonstrates that the word yom in the Genesis account means something other than a day (dismissing the fact that it is couched by saying there was evening and there was morning yom echad).He does not, when he says “through Him all things were made” add any kind of timeframe. You are torturing the passage. The idea that because John refers to this passage, he must interpret it literally in every sense, including the idea of God creating the universe in units of days (revolutions of the earth) before he has invented the Earth is not logic.
With respect to the fact that John is talking about the origins of Jesus being a man, that is completely false. John’s prologue starts as follows: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. Through him all things were made, and without him was made not one thing that has been made.
The first three verses of John are referring back to the Genesis 1:1 creation account, where the Hebrew writer introduces God with the creation. All of this presupposes a God that exists before creation; however, his starting point, the beginning of the narrative account, is creation. Verse three demonstrates that that is John’s intention. It isn’t until verse 14 when John addresses the incarnation. And when Jesus says it was not so in the beginning in Matthew, he is again, going back to the creation narrative, using the same verbiage and referring back to the creation account in Genesis 1 and 2.
However, if you take your line of argument, when Jesus is referring to the beginning he is referring to something that occurred eons after the creation, or John in his narrative (essentially using the Arian explanation of John 1), or Paul is crossing his fingers when he talks about death entering the world through one man. You can’t have it both ways, the text doesn’t allow for that.
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