B
BrianH
Guest
The origins of the LXX are complex. I do not believe most scholars give a lot of credence to the popular myth of a specfic group of scholars translating from Hebrew to Greek at a specific time. It is a popular myth but any number of scholars recognize the LXX as something that was in flux. Take for example the fact that Eastern Orthodox and Catholicism contain different books in their Old Testament canon.I like that…I suppose we should think about what Jesus did use. He really upset lots of Jews when he preached…ya gotta wonder. Now if he used the Septuagint that might have inflamed the Jews even more becuase the Jews of the Diaspora used the Septuagint…
There is a distinction between Jews of the diaspora and Palestinian Jews. Palestinian Jews rejected the DB, but the Septuagint, which is the Greek version of the OT composed in the 2nd-3rd century B.C. at Alexandria, Egypt by 70 or 72 Jewish scribes, was used by non-Palestinian Jews. It is a well known fact that the Septuagint (LXX) was both the Bible of the diaspora Jews and the Bible of all the early Christians. Further, it’s also a fact that the LXX contained the DB.![]()
It is also not a fact that the LXX at the time of Christ contained the Deuterocanonical books. There are no existing lists or copies from this time to prove or disprove the exact contents.
Even the earliest copies of the LXX used by Christians contained different books.
None of this really matters because Catholicism uses early Christian councils and regional synods to support their canon. What the canon was or was not in 30 AD is not why the earliest Christians did or did not support the Deuterocanonical books as part of the canon.
We talked about this a few years ago.
Here is the link
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=395145&page=3