T
t68ware
Guest
A friend of mine brought up an interesting point during Bible study. When looking at the Gospel of Luke exclusively, when you examine the geneology of Jesus, you realize that even though Joseph was from the line of David, Jesus was not related to Joseph or David because of the Immacualte Conception. How then can we argue that the Messiah is from the line of David when there is no “bloodline” connecting Jesus to David?