Listen I am not saying that geocentrism is formally defined as(Sungenis SEEMS to say it is infallible based on a various of arguments) infallible, but anything in scripture MUST be a matter of faith. Scripture is God’s word!!!(and the Church teaches that inspiration is for ALL of scripture) So!!! The Pope may define a passage of scripture as meaning a particular meaning if he so chooses. If the Pope says definitively, that this particular passages means that the earth is the center of the universe then that would be infallible(it appears that Pope Urban VIII clearly states that scripute teaches geocentrism, but the question remains did he formally define it-). not because of science, but because of what the Pope said the biblical passage means. I am saying IF the Pope said this, I am not saying those previous Popes did define infallibly geocentrism.
Good evening Charles!
From Trent: “Furthermore, in order to restrain petulant spirits, It decrees, that no one, relying on his own skill, shall,–
in matters of faith, and of morals pertaining to the edification of Christian doctrine, --wresting the Sacred Scripture to his own senses, presume to interpret the said Sacred Scripture contrary to that sense which holy mother Church,–whose it is to judge of the true sense and interpretation of the holy Scriptures,–hath held and doth hold; or even contrary to the consent of the Fathers; even though such interpretations were never (intended) to be at any time published.”
From Vatican I: “Now since the decree on the interpretation of holy scripture, profitably made by the council of Trent, with the intention of constraining rash speculation, has been wrongly interpreted by some, we renew that decree and declare its meaning to be as follows: that
in matters of faith and morals, belonging as they do to the establishing of Christian doctrine, that meaning of Holy Scripture must be held to be the true one, which holy mother church held and holds, since it is her right to judge of the true meaning and interpretation of holy scripture. In consequence, it is not permissible for anyone to interpret Holy Scripture in a sense contrary to this, or indeed against the unanimous consent of the fathers.”
With the way these statements are worded, one might be tempted to think that perhaps the unanimous consent of the Fathers is unqualified and does not share in the “faith and morals” restriction. But I think that it is understood to apply here as well. Leo XIII explained that “the Holy Fathers, We say, are of supreme authority, whenever they all interpret in one and the same manner any text of the Bible,
as pertaining to the doctrine of faith or morals; for their unanimity clearly evinces that such interpretation has come down from the Apostles as a matter of Catholic faith” (
Providentissimus Deus).
So infallible pronouncements of the Church, even when it comes to an interpretation of Sacred Scripture, are restricted to matters pertaining to faith and morals, and this even though the inerrancy of Scripture is not similarly restricted.
I think the debate turns on whether or not belief in geocentrism pertains to the faith.
By the way, John Salza also believes in geocentrism:
scripturecatholic.com/geocentrism.html.
May God bless you!