Book of Matthew 10:34-11.1

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Timothy524

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In this passage it says whatever receives a profit because he is a profit received a profits reward and whoever receives a righteous man because he is righteous will receive a righteous man through ward. And whoever gives only a couple cold water to one of these little ones to drink because he is a disciple, amen, I say to you you will surely not lose his reward.

Is my interpretation of this passage that when Jesus says whoever receives a propfet because “he” is a prophet…" The “he” in my opinion suggest the receiver. Do you agree
 
Timothy524 said:
In this passage it says whatever receives a profit because he is a profit received a profits reward and whoever receives a righteous man because he is righteous will receive a righteous man through ward. And whoever gives only a couple cold water to one of these little ones to drink because he is a disciple, amen, I say to you you will surely not lose his reward.

Is my interpretation of this passage that when Jesus says whoever receives a propfet because “he” is a prophet…" The “he” in my opinion suggest the receiver. Do you agree
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No.
 
I agree with Zab–No. The prophet or the righteous man is the one being received, not the receiver.
 
Timothy524 said:
So on that note the little ones are disciples?
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No the person giving the drink is the disciple and will receive the reward.

Please tell my why this is so difficult to understand. “Whoever” is the one doing the action of giving a cold drink of water to a little one, and is the disciple and he is the one who will not lose his reward. You are not correctly identifying the subject of the sentences, you have it backwards.

Do you know how to parse a sentence?
 
Nice quote to consider, Jesus sums it up by
saying: “Whoever receives you receives Me,
and he who receives Me receives Him who
sent Me” Matt. 10:40 The rewards are forth-
coming to those who receive the righteous,
the disciples, the prophets.and the little ones
who believe in Jesus(vv. 40-42)
 
Ok. So two questions. One for CB and one for Glam. If anyone else has (name removed by moderator)ut please contribute.

Question #1 CB

So how do we know that “he” is not a description of “whoever” or that “whoever” is not a natural reaction that a so called “he” would have based off of the status given to the individual? Also, if when proving my interpretation as in correct, could you provide an example how my initial interpretation would be written properly to convey such a message?

A) Whoever receives a prophet because he is a prophet will receive a prophets reward.

B) Whoever receives a righteous man because he is righteous will receive a righteous mans rewards.

C) Whoever gives only a cup of cold water to one of these little ones to drink because he is a disciple will surely not lose his reward.

Question #2 for Glam: when Jesus says whoever receives you receives me…is that to say that the person that receives “you” receives Jesus because Jesus is in “whoever” or is it because “whoever” is doing a kind, generous, and charitable act which Jesus respects because it is Christ like and representative of His goodness?
 
If I correctly remember my grammar rules for sentences with pronouns and their antecedents, the pronoun “he” usually refers back to the last mentioned male person or last mentioned person of indeterminate gender.

Here is a color-coding of the pronouns and their antecedents as I understand them:
Whoever receives a prophet because he is a prophet will receive a prophet’s reward, and whoever receives a righteous man because he is righteous will receive a righteous man’s reward. And whoever gives only a cup of cold water to one of these little ones to drink because he is a disciple—amen, I say to you, he will surely not lose his reward.”

Unlike the other pronouns in these sentences, the last “he” (in purple) is not really necessary but is inserted for emphasis and refers back to the subject (“whoever”) of the sentence, who “will surely not lose his reward.”
 
Timothy524 said:
Ok. So two questions. One for CB and one for Glam. If anyone else has (name removed by moderator)ut please contribute.

Question #1 CB

So how do we know that “he” is not a description of “whoever” or that “whoever” is not a natural reaction that a so called “he” would have based off of the status given to the individual? Also, if when proving my interpretation as in correct, could you provide an example how my initial interpretation would be written properly to convey such a message?

A) Whoever receives a prophet because he is a prophet will receive a prophets reward.

B) Whoever receives a righteous man because he is righteous will receive a righteous mans rewards.

C) Whoever gives only a cup of cold water to one of these little ones to drink because he is a disciple will surely not lose his reward.

Question #2 for Glam: when Jesus says whoever receives you receives me…is that to say that the person that receives “you” receives Jesus because Jesus is in “whoever” or is it because “whoever” is doing a kind, generous, and charitable act which Jesus respects because it is Christ like and representative of His goodness?
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In your original statement you said that the “he” referred to the “whoever”. It does not, it refers to the “prophet”. The “whoever” receives the prophet because the prophet is a prophet, thus the “whoever receives a prophet’s reward.” Read Todd977’s response–it is correct.
 
To me, these verses are ‘twisty’.

Matt. 10:41 - He that receiveth a prophet in the name of a prophet shall receive a prophet’s reward; and he that receiveth a righteous man in the name of a righteous man shall receive a righteous man’s reward.

There are no legitimate prophets, nor is anyone righteous. So, if I’m dispensing wisdom in my own name-status/character, I’ll get whatever ‘rewards’ are due. Or if I am calling Jesus a prophet or righteous man when I speak of Him, I’ll get that ‘reward’.

John 13:16 - Verily, verily, I say unto you, The servant is not greater than his lord; neither he that is sent greater than he that sent him.

Matt. 10:42 - And whosoever shall give to drink unto one of these little ones a cup of cold water only in the name of a disciple, verily I say unto you, he shall in no wise lose his reward.

If do anything helpful as a learner/disciple/servant of Jesus Christ…even giving a cup of cold water to a child, Grace will remain with me.
 
Obviously, Jesus is telling us to respect
His servants and whenever the opportunity
arrives, DO GOOD to them and He will
reward you!!
 
What I wrote above:

Matt. 10:42 - And whosoever shall give to drink unto one of these little ones a cup of cold water only in the name of a disciple, verily I say unto you, he shall in no wise lose his reward.

What is more likely the correct punctuation:

Matt. 10:42 - And whosoever shall give to drink unto one of these little ones a cup of cold water, only in the name of a disciple, verily I say unto you, he shall in no wise lose his reward.

Based on the companion verse:

Mark 9:41 - For whosoever shall give you a cup of water to drink in My name, because ye belong to Christ, verily I say unto you, he shall not lose his reward.

Now, I’m wondering if it would even be correct to give water ‘in a disciples name’…Mark’s verse just rings as more faithful to Christ’s teachings.

I’ve just started reading a book, “The Five Gospels” by Robert Funk et al, where it states (p. 10): “Most scholars have concluded that Matthew and Luke utilized Mark as the basis of their gospels, to which they added other materials.”

Perhaps Matt. 10:42 is one of those verses taken from Mark that wasn’t copied faithfully/understood fully?

EDIT:

Just found another supporting verse:

Heb. 6:10 - For God (is) not unrighteous to forget your work and labour of love, which ye have showed toward His name, in that ye have ministered to the saints, and do minister [to others].
 
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