There’s an issue I have with the Catholic interpretation of John 3:5 that I’ve yet to see answered. Maybe one of you guys can clear it up.
Jesus is speaking to Nicodemus a good bit of time before His passion. It’s not until after the resurrection that Jesus establishes baptism in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. According to the CCC, the sacrament consists of:
1278 The essential rite of Baptism consists in immersing the candidate in water or pouring water on his head, while pronouncing the invocation of the Most Holy Trinity: the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.
If Christian baptism had not been initiated yet, then how would Nicodemus have had any idea of what Jesus was talking about? It would be quite impossible for Nicodemus to understand that Jesus was talking about the sacrament of baptism if it hadn’t even been instituted yet.
Now, being a great teacher, Nicodemus would be well-versed in the Old Testament. The most plausible explanation is a cross reference to Ezekiel 36:25-27
Then I will sprinkle clean water on you, and you will be clean; I will cleanse you from all your filthiness and from all your idols. Moreover, I will give you a new heart and put a new spirit within you; and I will remove the heart of stone from your flesh and give you a heart of flesh. I will put My Spirit within you and cause you to walk in My statutes, and you will be careful to observe My ordinances.
Essentially, unless one is cleansed by God and receives His Spirit (all a monergistic work of God), then one will not enter the kingdom of God. This interpretation seems to make the most sense- trying to incorporate baptism into the verse seems quite anachronistic.