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Gara3987
Guest
The Biblical Justification would be within St. Paul’s First Epistle to the Corinthians 11, 27. He said “OR.” “Therefore whosoever shall eat this bread, OR drink the chalice…” To which in Latin VEL and in Greek Ἢ. Saint Paul was saying either or, one or the other.I see that a majority of Catholics receive only the bread/host when receiving Communion. I know the Church believes that both the body and blood are really present. But why? Wouldn’t it be better to receive both species at all times, like the Orthodox do (and all Protestants, for that matter)?
How does the Catholic Church prove that both the body and blood of Christ are present in both species of Communion?
Is there a biblical justification?
Also, why does the Church believe in the ‘age of reason’ for Communion? Isn’t that technically a departure from the Early Church? Just curious.
Regards,
Is the body of Christ divided or broken, when we divide or break the Sacrament?
It is not, for “he is now immortal and impassible, he cannot die nor suffer any more.” Rom.vi. 9.
Because Christ is whole in the whole host, and whole in every particle thereof, if you divide or break it; seeing that wherever there would have been bread before consecration, there must needs be the whole body and blood of Christ after consecration.
There is no command in scripture for the laity to do it under both, though there be for priests in those words, “Drink ye all of this.” Matt. xxvi. 27, which was spoken to the apostles only and by them fulfilled; for it follows in Mark xiv. 23. “And they all drank.” 2. Out of John vi. 58, “He that eateth (Gr. τρώγων | trogo) of this bread, shall live for ever,” therefore, one kind suffices. 3. Out of Acts xx. 7, where we read, “That the faithful were assembled on the first of the sabbath to break bread,” without any mention of the cup; and the two disciples in Emmaus, “knew Christ in the breaking of bread,” where the cup is not mentioned.
Oremus pro Invicem!
