G
guanophore
Guest
This is a very strange question. Justin Martyr was a Catholic. He believed in the authority of the Apostolic succession, the power of the 7 sacraments(including baptismal regeneration) and the Real Presence in the Eucharist.Why shouldn’t Justin tell the truth?
The better question is, why don’t you believe he was telling the Truth?
Catholic Teaching is explicit to us in Scripture because we read it through the lens of Sacred Tradition, which is the Teaching of the Apostles infallibly preserved by the HS in the Church. Reformed Christians read the Scriptures in separation from the faith that produced them, so they understand them differently than we do.Please explain what you think is explicit, and why you think that?
No, WCH. If you go back and read your own posts, you will see that it was you that claimed that Scripture must be understood in the light of other scripture. There are no contradictions in the text. If it appears there is a contradiciton, then you are not understanding it correctly.What’s continued is the OT prohibition against blood.
This is how it seems to you, but for the Apostles, and those who have received the faith from them, it is otherwise.Code:Yeah, I know, and that’s irrelevant. Paul says that what he told the Corinthian Church is what he was told by Jesus, personally. Obviously Jesus didn’t connect John 6, and the bread of life discourse to the Eucharist when He revealed it to Paul (cf 1 Cor 11:23-26).
So the early Church fathers, and the writers of Scripture “should” write what you expect them to write?Code:I stated the criterion: an expectation.
Well, we read it differently, don’t we?Code:Because, as I said, Paul doesn’t say anything about John 6 in 1 Cor 11 where he tells the Corinthians that he delivered to them what the Lord delivered to him (v23).
No, but many things were revealed to him about which he was not permitted to speak. So your assumption that he “should” write what you “expect” him to write is not correct.Code:Oh please. You expect to me to believe that 2 Cor 12:4-5 says that Paul shouldn’t talk about the Lord’s Supper?
And just how would you know that? Because you “expect” that it does not?Code:C’mon. 2 Cor 12:4-5 has nothing to do with Paul’s account of the Lord’s supper in 1 Cor 11.
He is recounting the sacrifice of the Mass. There is much more to the supper and it’s purpose than what is contained in that small passage.Code:Paul recounts what the Lord told Him concerning the supper, and it’s purpose.
Among other things, yes.Code:At the supper, they ate bread and drank the cup, and the purpose for the church doing that is to proclaim the death of the Lord until He returns (1 Cor 11:23-26).
This is what you need to believe, to preserve your rejection of Sacred Tradition. We know otherwise.Code:I’m not assuming anything about Paul. I’m pointing out that Paul delivered to the Corinthians what the Lord delivered to him. It’s all there in 1 Cor 11:23ff.
I see that we are back to the same inability to abstract. The pickle is still a cucumber in your world.“how could Justin do that?” He’s dead.
“You are wrong, because you know neither the scriptures nor the power of God. …have you not read what was said to you by God, 32’I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob’? He is not God of the dead, but of the living.” Matt 22:29-32
Weren’t you just arguing yesterday that those who die in the Lord live forever?
WCH;7939243:
The Truth is that you have no way of knowing what all Jesus told Paul. You are operating on an erroneous assumption that all of it is contained in Scripture. This is a grievious error.Sure I can. According to Paul, Jesus told Paul about the Supper, and He also told Paul the Gospel (1 Cor 11:23; Gal 1:11-12). There’re a couple of things Jesus told Paul.
Of course not, since it would be several decades before it was written. Honestly, do you understand anything about how the New Testament came together?Code:And in so doing, Paul never once mentioned John 6.
And he was martryrd before it was written as well. You are making a fool of yourself.Where, in any of his epistles, does Paul refer to John 6? I can’t think of anywhere.![]()
Yes. The anamnesis.Aren’t those the words of Jesus: “do this in remembrance of me,” aren’t those Jesus’ words?
Why? I am curious why one would reject this Apostolic Teaching.I’ve heard the anamnesis argument a thousand times, and argued against it that many times as well.
So where does Paul say that Jesus referred to anything recorded in John 6 as having anything to do with the Lord’s Supper?I’ve said a few times to all who have responded with that fact, that it’s irrelevant.