I don’t think the interpretation of Scripture is timeless.
For example, people in the past interpreted Scripture in such a way that they saw no problem in owning slaves. Slave owners in the South before the Civil War could point to passages in Scripture to justify the owning of slaves and the requirement that those slaves must be obedient to their masters.
After all, in Leviticus 25:44 it says:
Colossians 3:22 says: Slaves, obey your earthly masters in everything, not only while being watched and in order to please them, but wholeheartedly, fearing the Lord
St. Augustine saw nothing wrong with owning and whipping slaves: “if you see your slave living badly, what other punishment will you curb him with, if not the lash? Use it: do. God allows it. In fact he is angered if you don’t. But do it in a loving rather than a vindictive spirit” (Servumque ipsum tuum, si male viventem videris, non poena aliqua, non verberibus refrenabis? fiat hoc, fiat : admittit deus, imo reprehendit, si no fiat ; sed animo dilectionis fac : non animo ultionis.) (from
Corpus christianoruam, series Latina (Turnhout, 1953-), 40: 1464-6).
But of course most people nowadays would agree that slavery is wrong and immoral and would not agree with Augustine that God is angry if someone doesn’t whip their disobedient slaves. The interpretation of Scripture on slavery has not been timeless.