R
RyanL
Guest
How do we know that James didn’t give a dogma, but only a pastoral decision? Because Paul abrogates the discipline in 1 Cor 10:27-30; you can’t change a dogma, you can change a pastoral decision. Further, the pastor of the flock has the authority to dispense with the pastoral decision if he sees fit (for a recent example, see: St. Patrick’s day, Friday abstinence, and the Bishops)
Does history support that authority for the NT parish resides only in the local bishop? If it did, we should expect to see no further ecumenical councils. Is that what we see? Nope. Rather, we see ecumenical councils throughout Christian history, and all of those who attended fully expected the particular matter at dispute to be resolved with finality. (See: ecumenical councils and what they were talking about.) If everyone thought that the ultimate authority for a local parish was with the bishop, why on earth would they have councils? Why would every bishop be expected to uphold the findings of the councils? Why did they? Why is it, if they didn’t, they were casted out as Anathema? Isn’t it their own personal judgment as bishop?
So what have we seen?
Now let’s turn to your next post…
Hmmph. Doesn’t seem like you’re applying the verse correctly. In fact, it rather seems like you were deliberately mis-applying the verse. Tsk tsk :tsktsk:
But while we have our Bibles open to Malachi, let’s look quickly at a prophetic verse for the sake of those who, unlike you, don’t believe in the Real Presence:
Does history support that authority for the NT parish resides only in the local bishop? If it did, we should expect to see no further ecumenical councils. Is that what we see? Nope. Rather, we see ecumenical councils throughout Christian history, and all of those who attended fully expected the particular matter at dispute to be resolved with finality. (See: ecumenical councils and what they were talking about.) If everyone thought that the ultimate authority for a local parish was with the bishop, why on earth would they have councils? Why would every bishop be expected to uphold the findings of the councils? Why did they? Why is it, if they didn’t, they were casted out as Anathema? Isn’t it their own personal judgment as bishop?
So what have we seen?
- Doctrine can legitimately develop in Christian thought, as taught by the Bible and early Christian history.
- Bishops in a council have more authority than an individual bishop, as taught by the Bible and early Christian history
- Peter made an infallible decree at the Council of Jerusalem
- James made a pastoral decision based on Peter’s infallible decree
- The faithful were bound by the pastoral decision until the ordinary decided otherwise
- All orthodox Christians still believe Peter’s infallible decree
Now let’s turn to your next post…
I have given you my reasons why I have selected the verses I examined, and you haven’t disputed the validity of the parallel or provided an alternate and adequate explanation for the parallels. You have to do this to dispute the veracity of the claim. So far you have simply said, “I don’t agree, and I won’t say why you’re wrong.” That’s a child’s argument - I know you’re better than that.You have picked verses to support your theology and left out others.
Who was this addressed to? The NT priesthood (which wasn’t around for a few hundred more years) or the OT priesthood? Is the OT priesthood still around? Met any Levitical priests lately? What does v.1 say (keep in mind that a text without a context is a pretext):Mal 2…
priests, this commandment is for you.1And now, O ye
Hmmph. Doesn’t seem like you’re applying the verse correctly. In fact, it rather seems like you were deliberately mis-applying the verse. Tsk tsk :tsktsk:
But while we have our Bibles open to Malachi, let’s look quickly at a prophetic verse for the sake of those who, unlike you, don’t believe in the Real Presence:
I would ask them (1) when was the last time you saw incense offered during worship, and (2) what “pure offering” is given during your “Worship Service”. But I digress…Mal 1:11 (KJV) For from the rising of the sun even unto the going down of the same my name shall be great among the Gentiles; and in every place incense shall be offered unto my name, and a pure offering: for my name shall be great among the heathen, saith the LORD of hosts.
Three points to make here.The Old Testament priests were never considered infallible. In fact, when they violated Torah, the Lord is quite…graphic about what happened to them.
- I never claimed OT priests were infallible - what I claimed was that the NT reality is always greater than the OT shadow (which you have yet to contest).
- Foreshadowings don’t need to be a one-for-one comparison. See what I said previously regarding Adam being a foreshadowing of Christ.
- You’re confusing infallibility with impeccability. Please read this link so that you can see why you’re wrong. BTW, the Pope goes to confession weekly, and I’m pretty sure it’s not for “completely obeying the commands of God”. Again, read the link.