" burden of proof "

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I am afraid you are the one who is confused;

When a belief matches a truth; there is knowlege…
Absolutely right. However, there is no evidence to suggest that “God exists” is the truth. Lacking such evidence, belief is just belief. Not knowledge.
So; we can know that there is a God; by Believing that there is a God (if there is a God).
Yes, you could if you did, but you don’t so you can’t.
Yet; we cannot know that our belief in God is knowlege of God; but to state that it is not knowlege just because the belief is not known to be a known thing is incorrect.
No it’s not. Otherwise I could believe in the FSM and call it knowledge. Would you agree then, that I know the FSM exists, if I say that I believe I do?
 
What faith?
Indeed, you perhaps you have not read through the rest of the thread.
I answered that question in some detail:
Actually, I was referencing the faith that is atheism.
If one is to adhere to the logic that you cannot prove a negative, then you also must accept that there will always be insufficient evidence to prove that God does not exist.
Therefore the claim that there is no God is just as much a matter of faith as the claim that there is a God.
Aah, I see from a later thread that you’re still labouring under the dogmatic misapprehension that atheism is a faith.
It is.
Unless you can come up with some solid evidence that God does not exist.
Can you?
You really do know very little indeed. Are you trolling? Or are you just trying to use this forum as a learning tool? In which case, maybe you should come clean.
Given the prevocative tone and veiled insult, one could ask the same of you.
 
When a belief matches a truth; there is knowlege.

So; we can know that there is a God; by Believing that there is a God (if there is a God).

Yet; we cannot know that our belief in God is knowlege of God; but to state that it is not knowlege just because the belief is not known to be a known thing is incorrect.
You have to prove it’s correct if you want to call it knowledge or be prepared to have “knowledge” ridiculed.
 
You have to prove it’s correct if you want to call it knowledge or be prepared to have “knowledge” ridiculed.
four separate variations on the principle of the uncaused cause have already proven the existence of the creator. These are philosophically accurate, and unassailable, unless one resorts to some illogical disagreement on humanistic objectionary grounds. Even then, the proof is still solid. As all should agree, humanistic objections aren’t accurate or logical enough to disprove any philosophical argument. ( not liking a belief is not sufficient to disprove the belief )
 
Absolutely right. However, there is no evidence to suggest that “God exists” is the truth. Lacking such evidence, belief is just belief. Not knowledge.
No. Belief is knowlege if what is believed is also true.

It is absolutely irrelevant if there is no evidence, for example I could without evidence or reason believe that 2+2=4. The truth of that statement is knowlege even if I do not have a reason for claiming it; thus the evidence; reason or proof is irrelevant. A thing is either true or false.
Yes, you could if you did, but you don’t so you can’t.
If God exists; and I believe God exists; I know God exists.

If God does not exist; and I believe God exists; I falsely believe God exists.

It is not that complicated.
No it’s not. Otherwise I could believe in the FSM and call it knowledge. Would you agree then, that I know the FSM exists, if I say that I believe I do?
**If **the FSM exists; and you believe the FSM exists; you know the FSM exists. Likewise for any proposition; religious or otherwise.
You have to prove it’s correct if you want to call it knowledge or be prepared to have “knowledge” ridiculed.
God is a known proposition. The only room for debate is which God it is. We KNOW that an omnipotent; omniscient; conscious; living; eternal; necessary; creator exists. See;

ewtn.com/library/THEOLOGY/GODASFIR.HTM (Scotus Proof)
ewtn.com/library/ANSWERS/GODIS.HTM (Aquinas Proof)
oll.libertyfund.org/?option=com_staticxt&staticfile=show.php%3Ftitle=1217&chapter=97643&layout=html&Itemid=27 (Kant’s Proof)

For Starters; also see - Proslogion, Quaestiones in Lib. I Physicorum, Q.cxxxii-cxxxvi.

As traillius put it; it is a matter of knowlege; not belief.
 
four separate variations on the principle of the uncaused cause have already proven the existence of the creator. These are philosophically accurate, and unassailable, unless one resorts to some illogical disagreement on humanistic objectionary grounds. Even then, the proof is still solid. As all should agree, humanistic objections aren’t accurate or logical enough to disprove any philosophical argument. ( not liking a belief is not sufficient to disprove the belief )
Post it up! But I assure, there isn’t a version of the cosmological argument that hasn’t been rebutted. (Here’s the Internet Infidel’s repository of cosmological arguments and refutations)

Also, to vz71, I refuse to discuss atheism with you until you can at least demonstrate you’re willing to educate yourself about it. That means one or all of the following: read the Wikipedia article on atheism, read the Catholic Encyclopedia’s article on atheism, read the Atheist Alliance International article on atheism. These have all been hyperlinked for ease of use.
 
No. Belief is knowlege if what is believed is also true.
Well yes, but whether it is true is up for debate.
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JohnDamian:
It is absolutely irrelevant if there is no evidence, for example I could without evidence or reason believe that 2+2=4. The truth of that statement is knowlege even if I do not have a reason for claiming it; thus the evidence; reason or proof is irrelevant. A thing is either true or false.
Replace “2+2=4” with “2+2=5” and you’ll see why that’s not a very convincing argument. We believe 2+2=4 because of evidence, not regardless of it.
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JohnDamian:
God is a known proposition. The only room for debate is which God it is. We KNOW that an omnipotent; omniscient; conscious; living; eternal; necessary; creator exists. See;

ewtn.com/library/THEOLOGY/GODASFIR.HTM (Scotus Proof)
ewtn.com/library/ANSWERS/GODIS.HTM (Aquinas Proof)
oll.libertyfund.org/?option=com_staticxt&staticfile=show.php%3Ftitle=1217&chapter=97643&layout=html&Itemid=27 (Kant’s Proof)
Well I opened up those proofs and my brain almost exploded; I think that’s nearly 200 pages of philosophy. Could you perhaps find the proofs in formal logic form? (I can read them, but I certainly won’t be done in the next couple weeks)
 
Well yes, but whether it is true is up for debate.
Yes.
Replace “2+2=4” with “2+2=5” and you’ll see why that’s not a very convincing argument. We believe 2+2=4 because of evidence, not regardless of it.
Our Beliefs may be influenced by evidence; but the truth (ie; knowlege) is not influenced by evidence. Evidence; or reason for a thing is an accident to that thing; ie - a thing exists because of it’s cause to exist; whatsoever evidence it leaves is posterior to it; and cannot be it’s cause. Thus; it cannot be caused by it’s evidence.

It is slightly different for reason; a thing is true regardless of the logic or reason of it; whilst we could say that a thing that is true must be logical; and a thing that is illogical is impossible; this logic or reason is accidental to the existence of a thing; or a fact. Per se; the logic is a phantasm and as such is a contingent aparatus of it’s perciever (or conciever); thus - is it’s posterior; and as above; a thing may not be caused by it’s posterior.
Well I opened up those proofs and my brain almost exploded; I think that’s nearly 200 pages of philosophy. Could you perhaps find the proofs in formal logic form? (I can read them, but I certainly won’t be done in the next couple weeks)
None of these proofs restrict logic to a form; the first two (that from the Tractatus de Primo Principio, Summa Theologica) and the last two (those from Proslogion, Quaestiones in Lib. I Physicorum, Q.cxxxii-cxxxvi) were from the Scholastic Tradition (which was founded by the Author of Proslogion (Anselm), and pretty much ended with the author of Quaestiones in Lib. I Physicorum (Ockham).

Kant’s proof however is more easy to understand; as it follows a less Critical Method.

However; in General the Scholastic arguments proceed by demonstrating a conclusion; which is then used in the premises of the next argument (or a later argument). Ie; in 2.1 Scotus demonstrates how the division of order operated in essentially ordered terms; this is then used to justify later claims; such as to justify the arguments from 3.3 etc.

I can see however how Scholastic method would be difficult to adapt too for those used to the confined of Analytic or Continental philosophy.
 
Also, to vz71, I refuse to discuss atheism with you until you can at least demonstrate you’re willing to educate yourself about it. That means one or all of the following: read the Wikipedia article on atheism, read the Catholic Encyclopedia’s article on atheism, read the Atheist Alliance International article on atheism. These have all been hyperlinked for ease of use.
Refusal to weak discussion based upon an erroneous and unsubstantiated belief about myself and my knowledge noted.
 
Unfortunately for you, claiming something is true does not make it true.

Under your definition of faith, the faith that atheists have that God does not exist, is exactly the same manner of faith that Christians have, that Zeus does not exist. I’m happy to subscribe to that quaint redefinition of ‘faith.’
Unless you can come up with some solid evidence that God does not exist.
Can you?
No - But of course the burden of proof is not on me, as you probably know despite your refusal to admit it.

Look, the ‘rules’ concerning the burden of proof are quite clear. He who makes the claim, must provide the proof. If, as a theist, you claim that God exists, then you must be prepared to prove it to those who challenge your claim. It’s not up to those people to prove your claim wrong.

I wouldn’t claim to be able to fly, then tell you it’s your responsibility to prove that I can’t.
Given the prevocative tone and veiled insult, one could ask the same of you.
Actually it was an honest question. You seem to be making basic errors - errors that have been exposed as fallacious many thousands of times. So I figured you’re either trolling, or inexperienced in the arguments. However, neither seems to be the case, which instead calls your intellect into question.
 
You’re confused old son.

Belief is not the same as knowledge.
If you want to go the formal academic route, then belief is the same as knowledge but it includes a little more, at least in a philosophical context.

The ancient Greek Fathers of Philosophy defined “Knowledge” as “justified, true, belief.” That’s philosophy 101 for you, specifically epistemology.
Everyone on Earth is an agnostic. Anyone who says they know whether or not there is a God is either a liar, an imbecile, an epileptic or a paranoid schizophrenic.

No one knows whether or not there is a God.
You forgot to include philosophers.

More accurately you should have said, “I believe everyone on Earth is an agnostic”. I would challenge this belief, and claim that you do not have “knowledge” (as I previously defined) of other people’s agnosticism. You have no justification for your belief that everyone is agnostic. What you meant to say is that “I am agnostic, and I assume everyone else is just like myself.”

There is no philosophical proof for the existence of other minds, let alone other minds that are capable of beliefs. No this isn’t a matrix argument, it is the reality of epistemology. It takes a certain amount of “faith” to trust that other minds exist, that sense perception is reliable, and that there is some sort of uniformity in nature. This could lead you into the direction of the Transcendental Argument for the Existence of God, which I find very difficult to refute.

Unlike the other poster here, I don’t believe atheism requires “faith”.
 
Unfortunately for you, claiming something is true does not make it true.
Cute.
But placing my words in their proper context shows that the argument you are working so hard towards is simply not there.
You see, there is a textbook definition of faith that atheism falls directly into.
Whether or not you care to admit it.
Under your definition of faith, the faith that atheists have that God does not exist, is No - But of course the burden of proof is not on me, as you probably know despite your refusal to admit it.
The definition of faith is clear. Likewise is the fact that atheism is a faith.
If you require proof of this, I strongly encourage you to look up the word faith in a dictionary. You will likely see something to the effect of “Belief that does not rest on logical proof or material evidence.”
Given the lack of evidence in the ‘truth’ of atheism, we are left with atheism as a belief that is not backed by anything.
If you wish to claim atheism is not a faith then you must come up with proof that it is the truth. Absent this proof, I am correct in my assertion.
Look, the ‘rules’ concerning the burden of proof are quite clear. He who makes the claim, must provide the proof.
Were I making a claim, yes. But that is not even the argument I am on.
You are making a very positive assertion that atheism is NOT a faith.
Along with this assertion comes the burden of proof.
Now…please provide proof.
 
Cute.
But placing my words in their proper context shows that the argument you are working so hard towards is simply not there.
You see, there is a textbook definition of faith that atheism falls directly into.
Whether or not you care to admit it.
I have no doubt that there is a textbook definition of faith that your interpretation of atheism falls directly into. But that is because we have established that you have a very specific definition of atheism, which you erroneously apply to all atheists.

Whether or not you care to admit it.
The definition of faith is clear. Likewise is the fact that atheism is a faith.
Yes, so you keep saying. The atheist ‘faith’ would be better described as ‘confidence.’ As I said, it’s precisely equivalent to your faith that Zeus does not exist.
If you require proof of this, I strongly encourage you to look up the word faith in a dictionary. You will likely see something to the effect of “Belief that does not rest on logical proof or material evidence.”
Yes, I’m well aware of the definition. I can see where you’re making your mistake. You’re equating religious faith with confidence. I repeat, I can live with the latter definition of faith, if it makes you happy.
Given the lack of evidence in the ‘truth’ of atheism, we are left with atheism as a belief that is not backed by anything.
Fine, have it your way. If you want to equate a faith that an evidenceless phenomenen doesn’t exist with a faith that it does, that’s your prerogative. You continue to ignore the obligation of the theist faith to shoulder the burden of proof - yours is a positive claim, the atheist claim (for the version of atheism you are using) is a negative one. The ‘faiths’ are not the same.
If you wish to claim atheism is not a faith then you must come up with proof that it is the truth. Absent this proof, I am correct in my assertion.
Well, you’re not, but you’re clearly not about to change your mind. Atheism is confidence, born of the lack of evidence for deities. If you want to call it a faith, then that’s your look-out.
Were I making a claim, yes. But that is not even the argument I am on.
You are making a very positive assertion that atheism is NOT a faith.
Along with this assertion comes the burden of proof.
Now…please provide proof.
The OED primary definition of faith is “Belief, confidence.” I do not deny this version of faith, in strong atheism. I deny that it has the same specific meaning as faith in God.
 
The OED primary definition of faith is “Belief, confidence.” I do not deny this version of faith, in strong atheism. I deny that it has the same specific meaning as faith in God.
Your attempts to control a vocabulary (and thus an argument) that is well beyond your control are noted.

I have provided proof that atheism is a faith.
Now please provide the proof that atheism is not a faith.

Absent this, I will graciously accept your concession.

Now getting back to the point in the original post…as has been demonstrated here, yes. The burden of proof can readily be shifted back upon the atheist.
The specific trick to doing this is a shift in the argument from proving or disproving God to an argument of proving or disproving the fact that atheism is a faith.
And also as can be seen here, they will protest a great deal. They will attempt to control vocabulary, they will throw out red herrings (zues anyone?), and they will try to smear your knowledge or even claim you have none.
And eventually they will refuse to answer.
Usually under a guise that you haven’t the command of the subject to facilitate a worthy argument or some such bull.
In the final analysis, rather then answer for the facts, they will compartmentalize their own particular belief into a unique subset that no one besides themselves can possibly relate to or argue over.
🙂
 
Your attempts to control a vocabulary (and thus an argument) that is well beyond your control are noted.
And your incredible arrogance and condescension are likewise noted.

However, I will admit that my post was somewhat garbled; it was late, I should have waited until I wasn’t so tired.
I have provided proof that atheism is a faith.
Yes, you have. A completely different sort of faith than a faith in God, but, by one specific interpretation of the word, a faith indeed. I suspect you would be better off on a Lexicography forum, since you seem to be more concerned with forcing a word to mean what you want it to mean, in the context of your choice.
Now please provide the proof that atheism is not a faith.
I’ll post my thoughts in a different post, immediately after this.
Absent this, I will graciously accept your concession.
I find it very difficult to believe that you would be gracious about it. But in any event, it looks like we won’t find out - I feel no need to concede just because you are playing games with semantics and thinking yourself clever for it. That doesn’t give you an automatic win - you’re far from the first person I’ve debated on these forums who uses disingenuous and specious wordplay to try and score a point, and I doubt you’ll be the last.
Now getting back to the point in the original post…as has been demonstrated here, yes. The burden of proof can readily be shifted back upon the atheist.

The specific trick to doing this is a shift in the argument from proving or disproving God to an argument of proving or disproving the fact that atheism is a faith.
Well, this sounds like you’re advocating a diversion so you don’t have to prove the existence of God. Theists do it all the time, but they usually don’t admit to it, let alone recommend it. I commend your honesty, if only on this point.
And also as can be seen here, they will protest a great deal. They will attempt to control vocabulary, they will throw out red herrings (zues anyone?), and they will try to smear your knowledge or even claim you have none.
Why is Zeus a red herring? Genuine question - what’s the difference? Please don’t dodge - answer. How is your faith that Zeus doesn’t exist any different to my faith that no gods exist?
And eventually they will refuse to answer.
Generally untrue, you just won’t accept the answer so you claim it as unanswered. It was ever thus.
Usually under a guise that you haven’t the command of the subject to facilitate a worthy argument or some such bull.
To be fair, where the subject is the recognition of formal fallacies used to try and prove the existence of something, this is usually a truism rather than a ‘guise.’
In the final analysis, rather then answer for the facts, they will compartmentalize their own particular belief into a unique subset that no one besides themselves can possibly relate to or argue over.
Are you still talking about atheists here? It doesn’t sound like it, because atheist arguments are invariably based upon generally accepted standards of evidence and logic, that aren’t specific to religious discussion. It’s the theists who squirrel away their dodgy philosophical rationales into ever-more-esoteric pseudo-concepts, in a doomed attempt to worm their way out of actually providing substantion of their claims.

This is most definitely a case of the pot calling the kettle black!
 
On faith:

Faith means a few things, depending on the context. In the context of positive religious faith, it refers to a belief, without evidence, of a literally incredible phenomenen. Should you attempt to ascribe this manner and magnitude of faith to an atheist, you will find that they, quite rightly, rail against it.

Why? Because it isn’t equivalent. The faith an atheist has in the non-existence of gods is, as I said previously, identical to the faith a theist has in the non-existence of Zeus. Now, if you were in a discussion about Greek Gods, do you think that you would say, “I have faith that Zeus doesn’t exist.” Or do you think you would be more likely to say something like, “I am confident that Zeus doesn’t exist.”

Both of them are syntactically correct, but the first one is dischordant, because it’s semantically misused.

Similarly, if asked about a celestial teapot, would you say, “I have faith that no such teapot exists.” or would you more likely phrase it as “I believe no such teapot exists.”

Look up faith in the OED and you find, not only your ‘belief without evidence’ definition, but also the definitions ‘confidence’ and ‘belief.’ It is this context of ‘faith’ that is held by atheists.

Faith is used invariably in the context of a positive claim or outcome. Otherwise, what purpose the phrase: “I have no faith in X…?” This is why the word is inappropriate in the context of an atheistic belief that there are no gods. You would say, “I have no faith in their ability to deliver on time,” rather than “I have faith in their inability to deliver on time.”

So we can see that, despite your claim being syntactically accurate, the semantic meaning of the theist’s faith and the atheist’s ‘faith’ are quite different. It is this semantic difference that you are ignoring. So to repeat, I am happy to sign up to the same faith in the non-existence of gods, as you have in the non-existence of fairies, goblins, unicorns and the Flying Spaghetti Monster.

Hopefully that’s cleared up faith. But to drum it home, I repeat: the atheist’s ‘faith’ is not of the same character as the theist’s faith.

Note that here we are talking about ‘strong’ atheists - atheists who are prepared to state that they believe no gods exist, rather than saying they don’t believe that gods exist. Again, there’s an important semantic difference that you have ignored.

Now, the reason that theistic and atheistic ‘faith’ are not of the same character, is to do with the nature and credibility of the claim being made. Is the faith of someone who fervently believes that cats can fly, the same manner and magnitude of faith as that held by someone who believes they can’t?

Which brings us nicely back on-topic: The burden of proof.

One can argue, as you have done, that the burden of proof rests equally on both the theist and the atheist. You at least haven’t gone so far as to suggest that a theist can claim the existence of God, then, when challenged, say, “Oh yeah? Well prove he doesn’t exist!” (at least, I don’t think you have, and I can’t be bothered to trawl the thread) - that is clearly just dodging the burden, and is in no way a legitimate response to the demand for evidence. (Despite this, I see it a lot from theists - some people just don’t get it.)

Although you could say the burden of proof rests equally on both parties, since both are making a positive claim (the respective natures of the claims notwithstanding), I think the problem then becomes the nature of the proof that is needed. It’s clear that the two claims being made are of drastically different incredibleness:

The theist is making the claim that an undetectable, omnimaxial entity exists who created the universe and everything in it, can hear our individual thoughts, performs miracles and metes out punishment and reward according to a set of immutable laws it created. Or some variant thereof.

The atheist is simply making the claim that this ain’t so.

Now, extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence. The theist’s claim is, by definition, just about the most extraordinary claim it’s possible to make. Consequently, the evidence/proof required to substantiate this claim must be commensurately robust. But it’s far from it.
“Tell a devout Christian that his wife is cheating on him, or that frozen yogurt can make a man invisible, and he is likely to require as much evidence as anyone else, and to be persuaded only to the extent that you give it. Tell him that the book he keeps by his bed was written by an invisible deity who will punish him with fire for eternity if he fails to accept its every incredible claim about the universe, and he seems to require no evidence whatsoever.”
-Sam Harris, ‘The End of Faith’
However, the atheist can substantiate his claim just by pointing out that there’s no evidence for the existence of gods, and pointing out that this level of substantiation is good enough for the entire population of the world, when discussing different subject matter. Religion doesn’t get an exemption from such axioms.

So by all means, impose the burden of proof upon us strong atheists - our answer is, “No evidence, therefore no gods” and we’ve substantiated our claim.

So there you go - you win, if you want to call it a victory. Strong atheists have versions of ‘faith’ and are happy to accept the burden of proof for the claims made under this ‘faith.’ But we both know this is mere semantic hocus-pocus, and your motivation is given away in your previous post.
 
On faith:

Faith means a few things, depending on the context. In the context of positive religious faith, it refers to a belief, without evidence, of a literally incredible phenomenen.
{snip}
Why would you resort this tired strawman? There is plenty of evidence, whether you accept it or not.
Faith and reason are like two wings on which the human spirit rises to the contemplation of truth; and God has placed in the human heart a desire to know the truth—in a word, to know himself—so that, by knowing and loving God, men and women may also come to the fullness of truth about themselves

Pope John Paul II in “Fides et ratio”
 
Why would you resort this tired strawman? There is plenty of evidence, whether you accept it or not.
The evidence does not stand up to critical scrutiny. We all know that. It’s easy to believe if you want to believe it, but it’s nowhere near good enough to substantiate a claim as incredible as that made by theists.

The fact that you refer to this as a ‘straw man’ confirms your desire to believe in the outcome, not that the evidence is robust. It isn’t.
 
The evidence does not stand up to critical scrutiny.
Then you were wrong to state that “there is no evidence”.

That it doesn’t stand up to your scrutiny is not a universal statement of fact.
We all know that.
Who are these “we”. I am certain that I am not one of them.
It’s easy to believe if you want to believe it, but it’s nowhere near good enough to substantiate a claim as incredible as that made by theists.
Proving that to the skeptic there exist no credible evidence.
The fact that you refer to this as a ‘straw man’ confirms your desire to believe in the outcome, not that the evidence is robust. It isn’t.
Hi Pot, I’m Kettle.
Seems like a begging the question fallacy to me.
 
Should you attempt to ascribe this manner and magnitude of faith to an atheist, you will find that they, quite rightly, rail against it.
It seems so.
Both of them are syntactically correct, but the first one is dischordant, because it’s semantically misused.
No, the word is the word, and the definition holds.
Ears unused to the proper application of the English language will find it odd, but it is correct anyway.
Similarly, if asked about a celestial teapot, would you say, “I have faith that no such teapot exists.” or would you more likely phrase it as “I believe no such teapot exists.”
I would state that I do not believe it exists and ask for proof.
If someone challenged it by saying that it is my faith I would have to correct them.
My faith involves God and his church. There is not room for a celestial teapot.
Look up faith in the OED and you find, not only your ‘belief without evidence’ definition, but also the definitions ‘confidence’ and ‘belief.’ It is this context of ‘faith’ that is held by atheists.
Don’t you ever get tired of playing to the vocabulary?
Really, you just admitted the word is what I say it is yet keep insisting you do not have to account for it. It is readily obvious what people mean when the word faith is used. Yet you wish to claim atheists are special and have different definitions for words. That simply does not fly.
Faith is used invariably in the context of a positive claim or outcome.
And you are positive there is no God.
Otherwise, what purpose the phrase: “I have no faith in X…?”
The phrase is not “I have no faith in…” the phrase is “I have faith in…”
In your case, “I have faith that God does not exist.”
Else you end up making a positive statement either about your intelligence or about God instead of a positive about your faith.
This is why the word is inappropriate in the context of an atheistic belief that there are no gods. You would say, "I have no faith
in their ability to deliver on time," rather than “I have faith in their inability to deliver on time.”
You make me laugh.
I have a coworker here that is a real louse. The man cannot get the job done, and has no work ethic at all. And yes, I have expressed faith in his ability to screw up the task at hand on many occasions.
So we can see that, despite your claim being syntactically accurate, the semantic meaning of the theist’s faith and the atheist’s ‘faith’ are quite different.
No, atheists are not special. They do not get to decide what words mean to them.
There is no special vocabulary to cater to their beliefs.
Is the faith of someone who fervently believes that cats can fly, the same manner and magnitude of faith as that held by someone who believes they can’t?
Without more information on these flying cats it would be difficult to answer.
One may well challenge the faith and find that the person believes a cat can fly as far as it can be thrown. And they would be right.
However, if we are speaking of their ability to fly under their own power; then we could say that the one that disbelieves this does not have faith, they have direct knowledge.
Cats cannot fly of their own power. This can be readily tested and proven. Faith is not involved; direct knowledge is.
You cannot have direct knowledge that God does not exist, therefore this belief is faith.
If someone wishes to claim their belief concerning God is not faith, they need to cough up evidence to prove this.
The theist belief states that God created the universe and everything in it.
All of these other qualities simply follow as a logical progression of the premise that God is ultimately in control of the creation.
The atheist need simply make the claim that it is not so, but without direct knowledge of it is still practicing faith.
Atheists are not special.
They have to follow the same rules as anyone else.
You wish to claim atheism is not a faith, fine. But provide the proof or direct knowledge thereof.
 
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