Burning question

[Bob_R]

All I can say is WOW! You guys are very knowlegeable and it’s going to take me a while to digest all the info and come up with my own conclusion. I appreciate all the feedback and I didn’t really expect such a big response. I love this website!
Thanks again - Bob
P.S. In the mean time, I’ve got another “burning” question that I’ve been wondering about. I’ll post another thread.

 

[JimG]

Bob R:

John 1:1 only speaks of the eternal existance of God, not of Jesus.

In the beginning was the Word
And the Word was with God
And the Word was God.

In this prologue, John is speaking of Jesus.

The Word is the Second Person of the Trinity, eternally begotten of the Father.

“Begotten” does not carry the meaning it does for a human father and son, for a human father begets a human son in a temporal sequence.

But God is eternal. There is no before and after. From all eternity, the Father knows himself, and in knowing himself, begets the son. In other words, the Father speaks his Word, the Son.

Normally when we speak of Jesus, we are thinking of Jesus as he appeared on earth, as God-Man. But the Word exists from all eternity, taking upon himself, at a particular point in time, a human nature. But in Jesus, while there are two natures, there is only one Person–the Person of the Word.

Jesus himself said, “Before Abraham was, I AM.”