M
Markie_Boy
Guest
Back when the office of bishop was at times purchased so I have read, wouldn’t this break a chain of apostolic succession?
Why?Back when the office of bishop was at times purchased so I have read, wouldn’t this break a chain of apostolic succession?
Which has nothing to do with valid apostolic succession.1 Timothy 5:22
“Do not be hasty in the laying on of hands, and do not share in the sins of others. Keep yourself pure.”
I would think buying and selling a sacred office or position would violate this.
Acts 8:20
But Peter replied, "May your money be destroyed with you for thinking God’s gift can be bought!
Peter didn’t seem to like the idea either.
The sin of the person does not intrude on the power and authority of God. If a bishop is validly ordained by a wicked bishop, that new bishop is still in line with Apostolic succession because sin of the ordainer does not interfere with validity (in this situation anyways)Wow - that seems to go against scripture pretty clearly.
Someone that would seek to buy or sell God given authority seems wicked to me.
So a wicked person could lay hands on another wicked person, and that person has God given authority? I can’t agree with that.
Yes, granted. Such a practice is wicked.Help me here - is there any case in the New Testament that would support this?
In the case of buying an office, it would seem the buyer and seller are both wicked - not a case of a good person subject to a bad one.
Sure.Help me here - is there any case in the New Testament that would support this?
In the case of buying an office, it would seem the buyer and seller are both wicked - not a case of a good person subject to a bad one.
What have you found from your own study?Did Judas ordain anyone in scripture?
There is more than 1 person named Judas in scripture - for example see John 14:22Did Judas ordain anyone in scripture?
It is suggested that this particular person called here by the name Judas was also know to us as Thomas (yes, that Thomas). Given the presence of the Christian Church in India, I don’t think there is any doubt that Thomas ordained people.Judas, not the Iscariot,* said to him, “Master, [then] what happened that you will reveal yourself to us and not to the world?”
What you are suggesting is the heresy the Donatists professed - the working of a sacrament depends upon the worthiness of the minister.Help me here - is there any case in the New Testament that would support this?
In the case of buying an office, it would seem the buyer and seller are both wicked - not a case of a good person subject to a bad one.
Came here to say this. What if what OP is suggesting applied to the other Sacraments? I was baptized by a priest who ended up getting defrocked for something that was going on around the time of my baptism. Should the priest have done what he did? Of course not! Should I worry about the validity of my baptism? No, because God is more powerful than human failings. At the end of the day, Jesus through the working of the Spirit is who is actually administering sacramental grace to me.What you are suggesting is the heresy the Donatists professed - the working of a sacrament depends upon the worthiness of the minister.
That’s not the point. The point is that a validly ordained bishop validly ordains, regardless of the worthiness of the minister or the recipient.Did Judas ordain anyone in scripture?
In fairness my baptism example isn’t a perfect example - while ordained people are the proper ministers of the sacrament, just about anyone can baptize. But yes, if an excommunicated priest or priest was paid money, he would validly baptize if 1) he intended to “do what the Church does” and 2) baptized with the proper Trinitarian formula. So far as I know, the faith and motivation of the recipient doesn’t necessarily invalidate a baptism. We baptize infants who don’t know much of anything, after all. All that said, it doesn’t mean that an adult who has bad motives SHOULD get baptized, but that doesn’t mean it is impossible for it to happen.OK, on that note - if the one giving the sacrament - say baptism - is wrong enough to get excommunicated, and the one receiving it is doing it with the same level of wrong motive - is it still valid?
If someone is baptized by an excommunicated priest, are they baptized?
If they did it for money, is it still valid?