D
dronald
Guest
I’m not a Greek scholar, but I have been reading the Greek of Ephesians 2:8 and it uses the word “ἐστε” which reads “you are”. This strikes me as a present tense word and occurs in the Bible many times. Here are some examples:
Matthew 5:11 Blessed** are you** when they shall insult
Matthew 8:26 Why fearful **are you **O [you] of little faith Then
Luke 6:22 Blessed are you when shall hate
John 8:37 seed of Abraham** you are** but you seek
John 10:26 because not** you are** of the
Ephesians 2:8 For by grace** you are** saved through
The ESV seems to render this passage in the past tense, which seems incorrect:
2:8 For by grace **you have been **saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God
Whereas the KJV seems to get it right:
2:8 For by grace** are ye** saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
Douay Rheims agrees with the KJV
2:8 For by grace you are saved through faith, and that not of yourselves, for it is the gift of God;
But the RSV writes similarly to the ESV
2:8 For by grace you have been saved through faith; and this is not your own doing, it is the gift of God—
So, my question is this. Have you been saved by grace through faith? I believe it’s the Catholic position that no one is currently “saved” here on Earth but Paul seems to indicate that you are saved by grace through faith. Present tense, not future. What should we make of the original wording? What is Paul really trying to say.
Did he mean “You are” as in, it’s something that’s already happened and therefore you have been. Or does he mean it as some sort of a process? As in, “you are being saved”. I think the Catholic would take the latter.
Matthew 5:11 Blessed** are you** when they shall insult
Matthew 8:26 Why fearful **are you **O [you] of little faith Then
Luke 6:22 Blessed are you when shall hate
John 8:37 seed of Abraham** you are** but you seek
John 10:26 because not** you are** of the
Ephesians 2:8 For by grace** you are** saved through
The ESV seems to render this passage in the past tense, which seems incorrect:
2:8 For by grace **you have been **saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God
Whereas the KJV seems to get it right:
2:8 For by grace** are ye** saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
Douay Rheims agrees with the KJV
2:8 For by grace you are saved through faith, and that not of yourselves, for it is the gift of God;
But the RSV writes similarly to the ESV
2:8 For by grace you have been saved through faith; and this is not your own doing, it is the gift of God—
So, my question is this. Have you been saved by grace through faith? I believe it’s the Catholic position that no one is currently “saved” here on Earth but Paul seems to indicate that you are saved by grace through faith. Present tense, not future. What should we make of the original wording? What is Paul really trying to say.
Did he mean “You are” as in, it’s something that’s already happened and therefore you have been. Or does he mean it as some sort of a process? As in, “you are being saved”. I think the Catholic would take the latter.
