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How could Caiaphas have the charism of prophecy (John 11:51) when he was not a valid High Priest because he was not a descendent of Aaron?
What is your source for saying he was not a descendent of Aaron?How could Caiaphas have the charism of prophecy (John 11:51) when he was not a valid High Priest because he was not a descendent of Aaron?
Aaron’s descendents had indeed continued as successive High Priests for many generations, as the scriptures required, until about 175 years before the birth of Christ when Antiochus IV, a Syrian ruler, replaced them with a man of his own choosing who was not a descendent of Aaron. Following this initial break from the Scriptural requirements, several others held the office of High Priest who were not descendents of Aaron over the next 140 years or so. Finally, when Herod came to power under the authority of Rome 37 years before the birth of Christ, he arbitrarily appointed any person he pleased to the position of High Priest. Furthermore, the appointed priests were no longer anointed with the holy oil described in the Laws of Moses.What is your source for saying he was not a descendent of Aaron?
Scripture says:
Acts: 4:6 with Annas the high priest and Ca’iaphas and John and Alexander, and all who were of the high-priestly family.
This Scripture verse is noted in the Jewish Encyclopedia in its entry for Caiaphas – and they do not challenge its veracity. jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/3903-caiaphas
All of the Israelite/Jewish high priests (in fact, by the Law, all priests, period) were decended from Aaron.Aaron’s descendents had indeed continued as successive High Priests for many generations, as the scriptures required, until about 175 years before the birth of Christ when Antiochus IV, a Syrian ruler, replaced them with a man of his own choosing who was not a descendent of Aaron. Following this initial break from the Scriptural requirements, several others held the office of High Priest who were not descendents of Aaron over the next 140 years or so. Finally, when Herod came to power under the authority of Rome 37 years before the birth of Christ, he arbitrarily appointed any person he pleased to the position of High Priest. Furthermore, the appointed priests were no longer anointed with the holy oil described in the Laws of Moses.
Source: heartofhosea.org/caiaphas.html
Thanks for the rundown of history, it was very informativeRegardless, though, it was commonly believed that the High Priest, whether decended from the Zadokite line or named by a ruling power, had the gift of prophecy. The gift lay in the office itself
The author makes the statement, but gives no source reference (at least not that I could find).Aaron’s descendents had indeed continued as successive High Priests for many generations, as the scriptures required, until about 175 years before the birth of Christ when Antiochus IV, a Syrian ruler, replaced them with a man of his own choosing who was not a descendent of Aaron. Following this initial break from the Scriptural requirements, several others held the office of High Priest who were not descendents of Aaron over the next 140 years or so. Finally, when Herod came to power under the authority of Rome 37 years before the birth of Christ, he arbitrarily appointed any person he pleased to the position of High Priest. Furthermore, the appointed priests were no longer anointed with the holy oil described in the Laws of Moses.
Source: heartofhosea.org/caiaphas.html
I also quoted the Jewish encyclopedia for you post #4, did you read it?The author makes the statement, but gives no source reference (at least not that I could find).
Yes, I did. And it contains the following:I also quoted the Jewish encyclopedia for you post #4, did you read it?
As regards the charism of prophecy, it was not limited to descendants of Aaron or even the other Levite priests. .How could Caiaphas have the charism of prophecy (John 11:51) when he was not a valid High Priest because he was not a descendent of Aaron?
As regards the charism of prophecy, it was not limited to descendants of Aaron or even the other Levite priests. .
Yes I agree with you both regarding men other than the Levites had prophesied. However we are explicitly told in John 11:51 that Caiaphas prophesied by virtue of the High Priestly office he held. My question is the office Caiaphas held was not legitimate because he was not an Aaronite, therefore how could he prophesy? He certainly was not a man of God, when know this because he rent his garment which was against the law in the book of Leviticus.The Old Testament has several examples of common Jews who were prophets, whom God spoke through.
The Second Temple High Priesthood were experts in Astrology, as were their brethren in Babylon. All their writings on the subject were lost in the destruction of Jerusalem, and the High Priesthood itself outlawed.
The Essenes were diviners as well, and were famous for their accurate predictions.
Not sure what the OP wants answered.
This is what I was thinking. I’m sure that most of the prophets were not of the tribe of Levi.As regards the charism of prophecy, it was not limited to descendants of Aaron or even the other Levite priests. .
The office was legitimate even tho opinions may have differed as to whether or not Caiaphas was a valid holder of that office. Some OT laws changed (adaptations made) as circumstances changed. This may have been considered a legitimate change/adaptation by the majority of the Jewish leaders. I’m unaware of any OT or NT Scripture passages that challenge or call on the people to ignore all of the high priests after Jason died. The nation does seem to recognize them as holding that office. (Even the list given in the Jewish ency. link you gave.)Yes I agree with you both regarding men other than the Levites had prophesied. However we are explicitly told in John 11:51 that Caiaphas prophesied by virtue of the High Priestly office he held. My question is the office Caiaphas held was not legitimate because he was not an Aaronite, therefore how could he prophesy? .
It reminds me in some ways of God’s protection of the office of the papacy during times when the Church had “bad” popes.He certainly was not a man of God, when know this because he rent his garment which was against the law in the book of Leviticus
I should have specified that it was an adaptation of the regulation that the high priesthood should pass from father to son. (Both Eleazar and Ithamar were sons of Aaron. Ex. 28:1)I cannot find a Scripture passage that specifically states** only **direct descendants of Aaron may serve as high priest. I’m not disputing that Aaron and his sons were initially appointed, but there were exceptions to that direct lineage far earlier than 171 BC and Menelaus’ obtaining the office. The succession was to be through one of his sons, and was to remain in his own family (Lev. vi. 15; comp. Josephus, “Ant.” xx. 10, § 1). Failing a son, the office devolved upon the brother next of age: such appears to have been the practise in the Maccabean period. In the time of ELI, however (I Sam. ii. 23), the office passed to the collateral branch of Ithamar (see Eleazar). But Solomon is reported to have deposed Abiathar, and to have appointed Zadok, a descendant of Eleazar, inhis stead (I Kings ii. 35; I Chron. xxiv. 2, 3).
jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/7689-high-priest
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