S
SpiritMeadow
Guest
Today I was reading Clement I First Epistle to the Corinthians and I came upon something that truly puzzled, but at the same time enlighted me I think.
Reference to Gen. 4:5 and thereafter. Now my Jerusalem Bible, says the following:
“…Why are you angry and downcast? If you are doing right, surely you ought to hold your head high! But if you are not doing right, sin is crouching…”
The translation of Clement wherein he discusses the same passage says as follows:
And Cain was deeply grieved, and his countenance fell. And God said to Cain, Why art thou grieved, and why is try countenance fallen? If thou offerest rightly, but dost not divide rightly, hast thou not sinned? Be at peace: thine offering returns to thyself, and thou shalt again possess it.
Now this makes sense to me. I see what Cain did was cheat on his tithe? I have never understood before what Cain did wrong. This makes sense as I said. Sorry if everyone knows this but me, but I sure remember having this discussion and nobody having a good answer.
Now what translation was Clement using? Or was he only paraphrasing. I’ve not found an answer to either. All I know so far is that Clement’s originals are in Greek. and he wrote this around 96 CE. during the Domitian persecutions.
Your thoughts?
Reference to Gen. 4:5 and thereafter. Now my Jerusalem Bible, says the following:
“…Why are you angry and downcast? If you are doing right, surely you ought to hold your head high! But if you are not doing right, sin is crouching…”
The translation of Clement wherein he discusses the same passage says as follows:
And Cain was deeply grieved, and his countenance fell. And God said to Cain, Why art thou grieved, and why is try countenance fallen? If thou offerest rightly, but dost not divide rightly, hast thou not sinned? Be at peace: thine offering returns to thyself, and thou shalt again possess it.
Now this makes sense to me. I see what Cain did was cheat on his tithe? I have never understood before what Cain did wrong. This makes sense as I said. Sorry if everyone knows this but me, but I sure remember having this discussion and nobody having a good answer.
Now what translation was Clement using? Or was he only paraphrasing. I’ve not found an answer to either. All I know so far is that Clement’s originals are in Greek. and he wrote this around 96 CE. during the Domitian persecutions.
Your thoughts?