J
Just_a_Thought
Guest
This argument rests on the assumption that Jesus meant to forbid the term “father” to religious figures. He said call no “man” father, not call no “religious figure” father. Clearly he was pointing to God as the unique and original source of paternity. Ephesians 3:14-15 stands as St. Paul interpretation of the saying.Applying “father” to men as a formalistic or religious title was forbidden by Jesus. (Mt 23:9) Because of Paul’s bringing the good news to certain Christians and nourishing them spiritually he was like a father to them, but in no scripture is “father” applied to him as a religious title. (1Co 4:14, 15) Paul likened himself to both a father and a mother in his relation to the Thessalonian Christians. (1Th 2:7, 11) Whereas reference is made at Luke 16:24, 30 to “father Abraham,” this is basically in the sense of fleshly ancestry.
This argument also renders a false dichotomy between spiritual paternity (1 Cor 4:14) and “formalistic or religious title.” The Christian priesthood was never a merely formal institution, but was always a ministry of salvation. Therefore the “formalistic religious title” is part and parcel of “bringing the good news to certain Christians and nourishing them spiritually.”